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  #1  
Old 04-13-2012, 06:27 PM
ZenBeam ZenBeam is offline
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At what point in history did humanity achieve continuous sex?

The question Pee! wanted to ask his class*, but couldn't!

Obviously, with almost 7 billion people on Earth, there is never a time when a person is not having sex. What I wanted to figure out is when it started.

[See Pee!'s thread for the rest of the text, making changes as appropriate.]


I'm certain this occurred after the continuous stream of urine, but when? Does it matter much if only straight intercourse counts? (Let's specify that masturbation doesn't count.)




* OK, probably not.
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  #2  
Old 04-13-2012, 09:32 PM
Michael63129 Michael63129 is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ZenBeam View Post
I'm certain this occurred after the continuous stream of urine...
Why? I'm sure that even with a much lower frequency, the time spent having sex is longer than the time spent urinating (e.g. 1 minute (total) per day of urinating vs. 30 minutes* of sex, just once), and early humans were no doubt much more promiscuous than today.

*Of course, the time should be halved to account for the need for two people instead of one (assume no orgies) , but it is still significantly greater.
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Old 04-13-2012, 10:13 PM
heathen earthling heathen earthling is offline
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Originally Posted by Michael63129 View Post
early humans were no doubt much more promiscuous than today.
What makes you think that?
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Old 04-14-2012, 02:21 PM
Ponderoid Ponderoid is offline
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Obligatory xkcd.
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