What if the American colonies had always been represented in the British Parliament?

In their novel The Two Georges (Tor Books 1996), Harry Turtledove and Richard Dreyfuss (yes, the actor) posit an alternate history: The American Revolution is averted by diplomacy. A colonial delegation, led by George Washington, traveled to London to negotiate settlements of the colonists’ grievances. In 1996, the North American Union, a dominion of a vast and still-intact British Empire, includes all of what are now Canada and the United States (except for Alaska, which is Russian territory, and Hawaii, which is a separate British protectorate). In some ways it is a better America than the one we’re living in. It’s less efficient and less industrialized, but also less polluted, less crime-ridden, and more pleasant and polite – kind of a Greater Canada – and the slaves were freed peacefully by Act of Parliament, and some of the Indian nations still have home rule in large territories. The national treasure is “The Two Georges,” a Gainesborough painting portraying the historic meeting of George Washington and King George III. At the start of the book a secessionist underground called the Sons of Liberty steals it, and Thomas Bushnell and Samuel Stanley of the North American Mounted Police (they wear uniforms similar to the Canadian Mounties) spend the rest of the book trying to track it down in time for the royal visit of King Charles III.

However: The “no taxation without representation” thing was never really resolved. The NAU is still ruled, ultimately, by a London Parliament in which Americans have no voice, and which allows America such autonomy as seems good to it at the time. Governor-General Martin Luther King, Jr., is concerned over the theft of “The Two Georges” mainly because after a cockup like that, “London won’t trust us to manage our own affairs” for years to come.

Suppose the Revolution had been averted – because the “no taxation without representation” issue never arose, because the colonies had always had representation in the Westminster Parliament? E.g., at a moment when Raleigh was in Elizabeth’s favor, he got her to grant Virginia its own M.P. (himself). And that set a precedent and was granted to all other colonies, shortly after their founding, as a matter of course.

How would things have gone after that? How would the direct involvement of American M.P.'s in British politics have affected the Civil War, the Commonwealth, the Restoration, the Glorious Revolution, and so on? Would Britain have allowed the colonies to spend decades in “benign neglect,” or would the engagement of Americans in its government also spurred the Crown to pay more attention to its overseas empire throughout the 17th and 18th Centuries?

How would the development of democratic government have been affected? For most of the 19th Century in Britain, only one man in seven had the vote, while the U.S. had already abolished all property qualifications and religious tests for voting and holding office. Would the continued political unity of Britain and America have altered that process in either country – slowed down democratization in America, speeded it up in Britain, or both?

What about slavery? In our time-line there was a massive abolitionist movement in Britain from the 1780s through the 1820s; it finally succeeded in getting Parliament to outlaw slavery throughout the Empire in 1833. But suppose Parliament had included member from slaveholding territories in the American South and the British West Indies? Could they have blocked or delayed abolition? If not, would they have rebelled and tried to secede from the Empire?

Would the British Empire have eventually become a de facto American Empire? If the American population overtook the British, and there was periodic reapportionment of Parliament, eventually the American M.P.s would outnumber the British.

How would involvement of the Americans have affected the development of the British Empire in the 19th Century? In our timeline, after the Revolution, the Americans concentrated on pushing west and killing Indians, while the Brits concentrated on finding new colonial territories in Africa and Asia – most of which were already heavily populated, so they did not become “settler states” like Australia, but subject colonies with a voiceless nonwhite population ruled by an elite of colonial adminstrators. Now, if America had remained part of the Empire:

(1) Britain’s attention might have been more preoccupied with America and their efforts in Africa and Asia might have been less vigorous. (Imagine if Rudyard Kipling had grown up in California!)

(2) Regarding such colonization as Britain did carry out in the Old World, the Americans, with their clout in the Commons, would demand full participation and a share of the spoils and jobs. (Imagine if Robert E. Lee had led the British forces to victory in the Sepoy Mutiny!)

(3) The established custom of parliamentary representation for colonies would have presented new questions when the colonies in question were mostly non-white and non-British in population. Would colonial India be represented in Parliament at all? If so, would any Indians have a vote, or only Anglo-Indians like (in our TL) Kipling? And how many members would India get? Would its representation be based on its vast total population or its negligible Brit population?

So what do you think? What would have happened?

I don’t know, but I think most of your theories exaggerate the early influence that America could have had on this expanded British Empire. The idea that Raleigh could have been an MP is pretty far fetched. The Two Georges Treaty is an interesting idea, though. Up to about 1870, I suspect America would just have been like a larger Canada, and the idea of no US Civil War and a peaceful freeing of slaves seems very credible. From 1870 onwards, the power of the colony might well have forced Britain to reevaluate its Imperial policies much earlier than it did. That could have averted the First World War, which was partly due to the timing of Germany’s colonial ambitions. and therefore avoided Hitler and the Second World War too.

Yep, George Washington has a lot to answer for.

Why?

  1. Elizabeth didn’t get to make choices like that, even if Raleigh was in favour. Lord Burleigh would not have allowed it.

  2. At that time, and for a long time afterwards, Britain saw its colonies as a revenue stream, not an extension of the state. If they didn’t like the idea of representation in 1775, why would they like it in 1595?

  3. Even if this unlikely event had happened because of some bizarre Elizabethan brainstorm, there’s no way America would have retained any seats under Cromwell, nor was the country significant enough at the time to affect the English Civil War. I think the Pilgrim Fathers had other things on their mind.

Why not? The Massachusetts delegation would probably have backed his plays. Puritans, you know.

There’s basically two problems with this scenario.

  1. The notion that the slaves could simply be freed by an Act of Parliament is preposterous. The Southern states were willing to commit treason and start a massive, full scale war killing thousands just because someone became President who was somewhat opposed to slavery. (Yes, that is a simplification. I am not going to re-explain the Civil War here.) Why would they simply lie down and take it if a foreign government banned slavery? Inconceivable.

  2. The differences between American and Great Britain would not have been solved in the manner Turtledove describes. The Revolution didn’t just start over taxes and tea; it started in large part because rich interests wanted to invade Indian territories that Great Britain was more inclined to make treaties with, and over the simple fact that Americans did not consider themselves British. If they don’t have representation in Parliament and the Indians still hold vast tracts of land (no, not that kind) then what diplomatic solution realistically could there have been? More diplomact might have postponed revolution briefly. Not for long.

You’re citing problems with Dreyfuss’ and Turteldove’s scenario, RickJay – not with mine. I’m asking for speculations on the question: How would history have been different if the American colonies had been represented in the Westminster Parliament from Elizabeth’s reign onward?

Do Catholics in the colonies get the vote? Ex-Irish catholics? This could get very significant in the 19th centuries.

How long can the French monarchy stutter along without reforming its finances if there is no war-debt from the American Revolution (about half of France’s 1789 debt IIRC)? A lesser crisis might lead to an autocratic state or a constitutional monarchy. No summoning of the estates general -> no overthrow of the house of Bourbon -> no Revolutionary and Napoleonic wars -> no radical reform of semifeudal Europe. Prussia is never established on the Rhein quite so much. Austria stays the principal member of the Holy Roman Empire rather than focusing on just Hapsburg lands.

I am not sure that mere representation in Parliament would settle the colonists’ problems, which included:

Settlement beyond the Appalachians/proclamation line (which alienates the backwoods folk who otherwise might prefer royalist rule to that of the coastal/lowlands/tidewater folks)

Tolerance for Catholicism in Quebec (which alienates the New Englanders)

Refusal to allow systemic jury nullification in smuggling cases (again, annoys New Englanders while the same stuff is going on in parts of England)

Refusal to allow paper money to be printed (rough on everyone who does business in a specie poor economy, especially grating as taxes had to be paid in specie)

Diverging perspectives on burden-sharing between mother country and colonies with respect to the 7 years war and who should help pay down the debt.

Mercantilism reduces potential profits from sale of raw materials

Paying for the occupation troops to prevent the colonists from crossing the proclamation line.

Overall I am not sure that participation in Parliament would make a difference. A parliament dominated by English interests and corrupt seats might fan the fires by demonstrating the insignificance of the colonists in the British view of things.

Although home rule is certainly possible - even Ireland had home rule in the late 18th century.

I dunno. In OTL, when did Catholics get the vote in the UK?

But with representatives in Parliament, the colonists would have the votes to force political compromises on all those things; and even if they didn’t get what they wanted, working within the system would still seem a better bet than war.

How many seats in Parliament do you think the American colonies would have had?

Hard to say. The Brits didn’t begin to reform the Commons to make all the boroughs equal in population until 1832. In fact, that was one of the arguments against direct representation for the colonies: Why should Virginia have an M.P. when Manchester didn’t? And when the colonists responded that Manchester damned well should have a member, the argument just broke down; the British landowning class that controlled all the rotten boroughs didn’t want to hear any talk about parliamentary reform. So, if the colonies had had representation from their founding, the number of seats would have depended less on census data than political dealmaking – which means there’s no way to know and we’re free to speculate. On the other hand – there was a movement for reform of the Commons as early as the 1780s, and if American MPs had been a factor, the whole thing just might have gotten off the ground a lot sooner. Same with the movement to expand the voting franchise.

I doubt if a meaningful answer to the question is possible. If there had been no American revolution, would the French revolution have unfolded as did? And, if it had not, would the political history of the entire Western world have been very different?

Even disregarding implications for the French revolution, I suspect the advance of liberalism and democracy in the 19th century might have unfolded diffferently if there had been no successful and broadly stable American republic to point to. The US proves – in a way that the French Republic certainly did not – that stable, middle-class, conservative government is possible with popular democracy. Mob rule is not inevitable.

Catholics got the vote in the UK in 1829, and the parliamentary franchise was broadened in 1832 and again in 1867. But whether these events would have happened as they did, or when they did, without the example of the US is debateable. Similarly, the evolution of the British Empire, and the development of dominion status for Canada, Australia, etc, owed much to the example of the US – partly the positive example of the benefits of self-government and a federal system, and partly the negative example of an alternative course open to colonies who felt unhappy with their treatment by the colonial power.

Except, I don’t see any scenario where Britain gives the North American colonies enough seats in Parliament to allow the Americans to “force political compromises” on the issues mentioned before. That would have the effect of making the North Americans more powerful than the Mother Country, and there’s no way that would be allowed. Also, some of them would have weakened the Caribbean colonies, and there’s no way that would have been allowed. Barbados and Jamaica were a lot more important than the whole of North America. (And, btw, don’t think that if the UK had allowed NA colonial representation, the MPs would have been North Americans or lived in North America. Likely they would have been from Britain itself, or at least lived in London year round. The distances would just be too great to allow frequent travel.

What I think is more likely to have happened was the granting of a devolved American Parliament, like the Irish Parliament.

Good replies so far. We need to hear from some Brits in this thread!

We would, at this point, be ruling England more or less directly, rather than going through tiresome pretenses of soveriegnty like Tony Blair. Harmless enough comfort, I suppose, be churlish to deny it to them. But it does complicate things, rather needlessly, don’t you think?

Is it possible, do you think, that the Royal Court would have moved from London to New York by now?

BTW: If America had remained part of the British Empire, I think we would have seen the creation, at some point, of an American Peerage, and Americans in the House of Lords.

“You’re the Duke of New York! You’re A-Number-One!”

I think that you’d need to consider the further ramifications: that there’d be MPs for New Zealand, Australia, and other territories, lessenning the American influence.

I’ll try and respond more fully when I get back from work.

Except, without the American revolution, you would probably see a slower settlement of Australia.

I agree – in fact, note that my scenario also assumes representation for the British West Indies. But the colonies of the Atlantic seaboard would still the demographic giant gorilla of the Empire.

One of the issues that prevented the UK from dealing rationally with the colonists requests was that granting representation to the colonies in North America could lead to granting concessions to Carribean colonies and even (gasp) Ireland. Kind of the domino theory of colonial rights.