Does Lawrence invalidate adultery statutes?

In this thread some of us suggested that Lawrence v Texas invalidates state laws against adultery.

*E.g., *

I don’t find the matter so clear cut, and neither do most commentators (at least those whose writing is available on the Internet).

E.g., http://writ.news.findlaw.com/grossman/20030708.html

It looks to me like Kennedy wrote himself an escape hatch here:

Exceptions have proven important in consitutional jurisprudence.

Carolene Products is a good example.

And how far does it go?

At least one court has held that it does not prevent a state from making prostitution a crime.

What say you?

Does it make a difference if the adultery was consensual (that is, all parties agree)?

Another article by the same author (too soon to call Lawrence’s impact on adultery laws)

Wouldn’t “injury to a person … the law protects” include the spouse being cheated on? Alienation of affection laws already exist.

That’s why I wondered aloud about cases where everyone consents. Yes, one person is hurt unless all agree. Though I think many would say that even if all consent, adultery is an “abuse of an institution the law protects.”

But bear in mind, “the majority of states have abolished or severely curtailed the torts of alienation of affections and criminal conversation .”

http://www.divorcenet.com/states/ohio/ohart_10

http://www.worldlawdirect.com/article/1026/Alienation_of_affections_--_Law_suits.html (slightly different count).

Tje policy reasons behind the abolition of the tort of alienation of affection:

http://www.mrsc.org/mc/courts/supreme/100wn2d/100wn2d0739.htm

and see, Latest Opinions | Tennessee Administrative Office of the Courts (pdf)

So if we rely on the injury to the non-consenting spouse as a basis for adultery laws, we have to reconcile this justification with the fact that most states do not think that repair of the injury is worth the policy costs.

A good discussion of the history of alienation of affection and the reasons for the abolition of the cause of action.

OTOH

The Supreme Court of Virginia invalidated Virginia’s fornication statute based on *Lawrence *this January.

case
summary
review of case

In finding the statute unconstitutional, the court said:

The court did not mention the part about “absent injury to a person or abuse of an institution the law protects.”

This raises a fundamental question: What is the holding of Lawrence?

Is it that “decisions by married or unmarried persons
regarding their intimate physical relationship are elements of
their personal relationships that are entitled to due process
protection”?

or is it that “The Texas statute furthers no legitimate state interest which can justify its intrusion into the personal and private life of the individual”?
It depends on what theory of precedential interpretation the next court decides to apply.

http://www.law.emory.edu/academics/orientation/lm.orientation2004.pdf

http://www.michbar.org/journal/article.cfm?articleID=475&volumeID=35

The court certainly gives an ample basis for either interpretation.

If we listen to the announced rule, the court says

and

But the next sentence undercuts need for this analysis. The court applied the rational basis test, which applies when the right in question is not a fundamental one and the statute does not discriminate against a suspect class. http://faculty.ncwc.edu/toconnor/325/325lect03.htm In other words, it was not necessary to the result in this case for the court to determine whether a fundamental right existed at all. If that’s the case, and you follow the* ratio decidendi* approach to precendent, then that stuff is all dicta.

How can we tell which theory the Supreme Court will apply?
They’ve said this:
When an opinion issues for the Court, it is not only the result but also those portions of the opinion necessary to that result by which we are bound. Cf. Burnham v. Superior Court of Cal., County of Marin, 495 U.S. 604, 613 (1990) (exclusive basis of a judgment is not dicta) (plurality); Allegheny County v. American Civil Liberties Union, Greater Pittsburgh Chapter, 492 U.S. 573, 668 (1989) (“As a general rule, the principle of stare decisis directs us to adhere not only to the holdings of our prior cases, but also to their explications of the governing rules of law.”) (Kennedy, J., concurring and dissenting); Sheet Metal Workers v. EEOC, 478 U.S. 421, 490 (1986) (“Although technically dicta, . . . an important part of the Court’s rationale for the result that it reache[s] . . . is entitled to greater weight . . .”) (O’Connor, J., concurring).

http://straylight.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/94-12.ZO.html

So Rehnquist says that the Court follows the ratio decidendi rule.

Of course, there is another way to look at it, as the Supreme Court of Virginia did. The Court looked at the results. The Court decided that the United States Supreme Court had, in fact, applied the rational basis test. By doing so, the Virginia Court reasoned, the Supreme Court had held that there was no good reason for any law regulating consensual sex.

Because the *Lawrence * court necessarily found that the statute did serve a legitimate state interest, this one doesn’t either.

On the other hand, adultery statues might well be rationally related to a legitimate state interest, in which case, the Virginia courts logic will not invalidate those statutes.

Giving this one final bump now that the holiday is over.