Speaking of H.G. Wells' novel The War of the Worlds
, as many threads here are, many claim Wells meant the novel as a metaphor for imperialism. For example, from Wikipedia:
The book has been viewed as an indictment of European colonial actions in Africa, Asia, and the Americas. Justification of the conquest of non-European peoples was usually along the lines of might-makes-right; i.e., the Europeans had vastly superior technology and so must be naturally superior people and so are perfectly justified in taking the lands for themselves.
I've read the novel twice, but I just don't see it. British and European colonialism occurred as lengthy interactions between the natives and the imperialists, and it virtually always hinged on either enslavement, or trade of raw materials. In The War of the Worlds
however, there is no interaction with the Martians. No enslavement, no trade, no puppet government, etc., or any of the hallmarks of the colonial relationship.
Can anyone identify anything within the novel itself
that would convince me otherwise?