By legal, I mean even violating the agreement between merchant and bank or credit card company.
I went to Quiznos and paid with a gift card. The remaining amount was $3.88 or something. Out of habit, I hand him my American Express (I get 3% cash back when I use it for food, so I developed that habit).
The guy asks if I can use a different card. I show him a Visa and ask if they just don’t take Amex. He says they do, but Amex charges him $2.50 every time it’s used.
He points at my Visa and tells me he’s only charged $1.00 to swipe a Visa.
So here I am thinking, the guy is going to get dinged $1.00 for swiping a Visa to pay for $3.88 of food? Feeling bad for the guy, I paid with cash.
But while driving home, I was thinking … if it’s such a burden on him to take Amex, why does he take it?
And then I remembered that Amex has strange clauses in their agreement that say things like, you can’t discriminate against our card in any fashion that you don’t also discriminate against Visa cards. It’s worded in several different ways about different kinds of actions.
If the credit card companies are encouraging me to use their card to pay for these things (incentivizing me with 3% on food from Amex, 2% on food from Amazon Visa), that probably means they want me to use the card at those vendors, I’m assuming because they charge that surcharge to the vendor, and they’re also hoping I carry a balance and pay a big fee.
So does Amex (or Visa, for that matter) care that the merchant is discouraging customers from using their credit cards? I’d bet they would.
How about disclosing the amounts they’re charged? Isn’t that between the merchant and the credit card company?