Why is it called "real estate"?

[Acsenray]

@Steve_Weston

If we were to refer to something as “real property.” the explanation, as given by Wikipedia is that “real” refers to a “thing.” So what Wikipedia is saying is that when we say “real estate,” we’re saying “thing estate.” Interesting, but not convincing.

Unfortunately, this is not how language works. You can’t back-translate individual elements of set phrases and expect to get logical results.

There’s a famous example of this – Torpenhow Hill. If you translate the individual elements of this name, you get “Hill Hill Hill Hill.”

If we were to put the English word “real” in front of the above definition, we get: “real legal rights, interests and entitlements to property.” This just doesn’t make sense.

You’re making the same mistake here. Furthermore, you’re arbitrarily ignoring all the other definitions of “estate,” one of which is “property.”

I am familiar with the term. When another attorney brought this up to me, I asked her, "Then why don’t we say “rem estate,” or “res estate?”

Again, you’re looking for consistency in language that simply isn’t justified. For the word “colonel,” why do we use a spelling derived from Italian and a pronunciation derived from French?

Again, the meaning of the term “real estate,” following this line of reasoning, would be “thing estate.” “thing legal rights, interests and entitlements to property.” I’m not convinced. Can you convince me more?

Your objection is like the joke “Why do we drive on a parkway and park on a driveway?” It is based on a fundamental misunderstanding of how language develops.

Could you explain it to me, or could you direct me to a source that would enlighten me? All I’m going with is what I learned from my UCLA Histroy major wife, and in my own education. If I’m going to challenge “The Boss,” I’ll be needing some very strong arguments.

I’m not an expert on mediaeval property, but we can start with a couple of points:

Wills were around in ancient times, long before any mediaeval concepts of kingship.

English common law of property starts with the basic problems of intestate succession, which means inheritance in the absence of a will. Your claim that in the absence of a will that ownership reverts to the crown is fundamentally wrong.

[Powers]

I’ve updated the Wiktionary entry to make it clear that the “royal” derivation is dubious at best, and restore the “res” derivation that was there before 2006.
Powers &8^]

[Steve_Weston]

Thanks again. My OED is the older version. Yes, I did consult this source many years ago in this “quest.” I can see that time, culture, and popular language useage can change the meaning of words, such that the word “sophisticated,” has changed 180 degrees from its original meaning. It may indeed be a hangover that we use the term “real estate,” meaning “thing estate.” But I’m still botherered by the word “estate.” The inclusion of this term is what makes me question even the OED.

Could I bother you, since you are more schooled than I in researching words, to explore the reason for the use of the word “estate,” when “land,” or “property” would have been a much better choice of words to convey the concept of “thing,” ownership?

I’m not sure I’m making myself clear. Whenever I’ve discussed the derivation of the term “real estate,” I receive the exact same responses, quoting Wikipedia, and the OED. However, when I posit that the word “estate’” is just as critical to the argument that the term “real estate,” relates to “royal ownership,” and emphasize the the word “estate” relates to “ownership rights,” that’s when I have people question their thinking. Could I bother you to spend a few minutes researching and responding to this?

Thank you,

Steve Weston

[Acsenray]

@Steve_Weston

Could I bother you, since you are more schooled than I in researching words, to explore the reason for the use of the word “estate,” when “land,” or “property” would have been a much better choice of words to convey the concept of “thing,” ownership?

I’m not sure I’m making myself clear. Whenever I’ve discussed the derivation of the term “real estate,” I receive the exact same responses, quoting Wikipedia, and the OED. However, when I posit that the word “estate’” is just as critical to the argument

What argument? Lexicographers look at evidence to determine the derivation of words and phrases. I’m not sure why you posit this as an argument.

that the term “real estate,” relates to “royal ownership,” and emphasize the the word “estate” relates to “ownership rights,” that’s when I have people question their thinking.

I’m not really sure what your question is. An “estate” is a bundle of ownership rights that belongs to a person. “Real estate” is that portion of ownership rights that relates to realty, as opposed to chattels. From there, the term became associated with the land itself, so we speak of entering into transactions regarding real estate, now simply a synonym for real property.