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Old 04-09-2012, 02:15 PM
lawbuff lawbuff is offline
Join Date: Jan 2012
Posts: 1,448
Originally Posted by sir viks View Post
To lawbuff, since they are going through a nasty divorce, there is no way there could be implied permission. They haven't spoken directly in months, only through lawyers. However, they are still legally married, but the court is very aware that they are going through a divorce.

At the very least, the money could factor into the final divorce settlement. But legally, by signing his name, without permission, and she certainly does not have implicit permission (since they are going through a divorce), does her forgery constitute breaking a law?

The facts need to be given to the divorce lawyer for the party complaining. S/he will know what to do about it.