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Old 06-10-2019, 02:01 PM
Red Wiggler is offline
Join Date: Jul 2012
Posts: 1,931
Originally Posted by Velocity View Post
Except that that was the exact opposite. Jesus was not accommodating people. For instance, He said that "You have heard it said that a man can divorce his wife by giving her a certificate of divorce" (in other words, the human culture of the day was accommodating of divorce)..."but I say" (and then puts in much tighter restrictions, saying that even marrying post-divorce is adultery). He also said that human culture allows "eye for an eye" but then put in an even tighter restriction - that people were not supposed to retaliate even when struck.

He was flouting human culture of the day.
Even if this is all true, how does it support the idea that JC would consider homosexuality a sin and for what reasons? How does homosexuality affect, for good or otherwise, his purpose of redeeming us all (sorry if I have that wrong, I wasn't a Christian for long -- heck, by the standards of some I probably wasn't Christian at all -- and I'm not remotely one now and the doctrine is increasingly hazy).

I'd like to believe the best of Jesus of Nazareth but if this "homosexuality is sin" bullshit turns out to be true, then count me out. It defies logic and it defies love and humanity.