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Old 07-29-2019, 08:50 AM
steronz is online now
Join Date: Feb 2007
Location: Oh-hiya-Maude
Posts: 5,057
Originally Posted by Scylla View Post
I think to the extent that any individual is personally responsible for racist history, they should make compensation to the victims.
This is a pretty simplistic view. In my OP I gave a specific example of a way that people are clearly benefiting from a racist history even though they weren't personally responsible for it. To summarize,

1) 100 years ago a bunch of well-off racists left the greater city and started their own community, barring blacks, jews, and other ethnic undesirables by statute (or rather, deed restriction)

2) When blatant systemic racism became untenable, the residents switched to a less systemic version of neighborhood associations to continue to keep minorities out of the community.

3) Without their prosperity to help bolster the greater city's community resources, there was a predictable decline in the quality of life for those unable to leave.

4) 100 years later, the grandchildren of those racists still live in this "bubble" of a community. Many of them feel no responsibility for those outside their community because a) they weren't personally responsible for those racist decisions, and b) those outside the community can or should take "personal responsibility" for their own well-being.

My question is, isn't "personal responsibility" if used in this scenario and in this manner just a code word for "I don't want to deal with the problems my racist grandparents helped create and I have clearly benefited from?"