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Old 09-08-2019, 12:16 PM
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Originally Posted by Little Nemo View Post
I think I'm missing the distinction you're making. If the militia clause can't infringe on the individual right, then that seems to me to be equivalent to say it has no effect on the right. And if the militia clause has no effect, that seems to me to be saying it's meaningless in a legal sense.
Those are not equivalent. The militia clause can have purpose other than infringing on the individual right. You seem to be saying that the only purpose the militia clause can serve is as a restriction. But that's not accurate.