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Old 09-01-2019, 01:38 PM
The Other Waldo Pepper is online now
Join Date: Apr 2009
Posts: 16,877
Originally Posted by thorny locust View Post
I don't see how you can simultaneously claim that the word "militia" undoubtedly applies to all citizens capable of bearing arms, and that it only applies to those who are enrolled and notified. Either the government had the regulatory power to impose all those regulations on "all citizens capable of bearing arms", whether or not it chose to in 1792; or it didn't -- in which case, where are all the objections from 1792, when most of the founders were still around? -- ; or the word "militia" doesn't apply to all citizens capable of bearing arms, but only to those officially enrolled in a state or federal militia -- in which case the 2nd doesn't apply to individuals except as part of such a militia.
How do you figure?

I’m with you if it said “a well-regulated militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of that militia to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.” But for some reason, it doesn’t say “the right of that militia”; all of a sudden, it changes direction and starts talking about “the right of the people”.