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Old 08-23-2016, 08:23 PM
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Join Date: Mar 2000
Location: Faber, VA
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Originally Posted by amarone View Post
Your hand is purely preemptive in nature. By opening 1D you have given the impression that you have values elsewhere in addition to long diamonds. Change one of those clubs into the King, and I would openy that 1D.

I would open your hand 3NT, which shows a long, solid minor and no stops outside. Partner then determines whether s/he can stop the other suits. This is called the Gambling 3NT. If I did not play that convention, I would open the hand 5D.

After partner responds 1H and both opponents have passed, there is little need to pre-empt the bidding to the 5-level. The opponents have not bid, so probably do not have much. Nobody has bid spades. That suggests that partner has a decent hand with both spades and hearts. Bidding 5D just gives partner a problem. It's difficult to say what you should bid over 1H given that there is now no way of saying that all you have is long diamonds - everything you do will suggest that you have long diamonds plus something else.

What was your partner's hand?
We do not play gambling 3nt, alas.

Partner had:

S: A, K, 7, 3
H: A, Q, 9, 7, 3 ,2
D: void
C: J, 10, 9

We were down 1 after a spade lead.

So what would partner reply if we played G3nt?

I felt like my opening of 1 diamond in the 2nd seat, and my next jump to 5 would show a hand that wanted to play on 5 unless partner had really strong values. But now I think I should have just opened 5 diamonds. The defense can take 3 clubs off the top, but it is hard for South to find the lead from Kxx.

If I don't make the jump to 5 diamonds, partner may pass. I know I want to play there unless partner has a slam hand. Is there a good artificial forcing bid for me after the 1h response?