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Old 01-02-2013, 04:05 PM
XT XT is offline
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Join Date: Apr 2003
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Originally Posted by elucidator View Post
Would it even be possible to have data what would conclusively prove any such effect?
I don't see why not, if such a correlation actually exists. But considering the fact that there was a general downward trend in murder rates across multiple countries that all started around that same time period I'd say that there is evidence that other factors were in play besides a gun ban in England.

Aren't they all vulnerable to a post hoc egro propter hoc criticism?
I don't believe that this is the criticism being made.

ETA: Or what RA said.

Last edited by XT; 01-02-2013 at 04:05 PM.