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Old 03-17-2020, 11:45 PM
MaverocK is offline
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Join Date: Dec 2013
Posts: 288

Why was SARS I (2002-2003 outbreak) deadlier (higher case fatality rate) than SARS-CoV-2?


I searched this on google maybe several hours but could not find much relative information. All search results are riddled with the information about the new coronavirus (SARS-CoV-2).
I am rather interested in more theoretical information.
My knowledge from high school biology classes is still relatively fresh so I hope I can understand
I am by no means an expert but I suspect that the current case fatality rate might be lower due to the use of remdesivir in China.
 

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