When Christianity was a nutty cult

I’d be interested in reading how the Romans and other first-century peoples regarded the followers of “Christos”. What are some good sources, and how biased or accurate are they considered to be?

I believe the name “Christians” was originally “Chrestians,” Greek for “simpletons,” and was applied as an insult by outsiders. As with many other sects (e.g., the Quakers and the Methodists), they adopted the insulting name as a badge of honor.

You can’t be serious, but since this is GQ I have to assume you are.

Christ is from the Greek Christos (the anointed one), which just amounts to calling him “the Messiah” in Greek.

BrainGlutton, where did you get that from? I’ve never heard it before.

The earliest reference to Christians in a non-Christian source is in Tacitus’ Annals (15.44)

Sorry, the report referred to is that Nero himself started the fire that burned Rome. Tacitus is probably a pretty good source for what Romans thought about Christians at the time - this was written probably a little after 115 CE.

Par Lagerkvist’s novel *Barabbas *is a masterpiece, plus it’s short. It tells the story of the robber that was released, instead of Jesus, by Pilate. In other words, the single human being for whom Jesus *literally *died so that he could live. Making him, of course, a metaphor for all of Christianity. I’m an atheist, but it’s still a favorite novel. Barabbas is, of course, not a Christian, but as time passes, he keeps hearing whispers about this new religion that he has a unique perspective on. I recommend it. Lagerkvist won the Nobel Prize for literature.

There are no non-Biblical first century sources about how the Christians were considered. Josephus’ history of the Jews, written in the 90s, some say 93 CE, has only a mention, and Tacitus is next, with some sources putting it at 109 CE, others slightly later.

As for accuracy, here’s what one commentary has to say:

http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/gordon_stein/jesus.shtml

Stein must be taken cautiously, though.
Pliny the Younger has a passage at around the same time:

For the most part, however, any text that contains a reference to Christians earlier than the third or fourth century has little to say, and that at third or fourth hand.

lissener, am I missing something or is your post just a total hijack?

Rather than re-write my whole previous post on the topic, allow me to refer you here.

Some works you might want to check out:

The Birth of Christianity: Discovering What Happened in the Years Immediately After the Execution of Jesus by John Dominic Crossan
The Christians as the Romans Saw Them by Robert Louis Wilken
The First Century: Emperors, Gods, and Everyman by William Klingaman
From Jesus to Christianity: How Four Generations of Visionaries & Storytellers Created the New Testament and Christian Faith by L. Michael White
The Lost Christianities: The Battles for Scripture and the Faiths We Never Knew by Bart D. Ehrman
Pagans and Christians by Robin Lane Fox

I don’t buy that Tacitus’ account isn’t authentic. It’s perfectly consistent with his style and his digressions. Not to mention that a later repeat of the sentence is no proof at all of anything - that’s the nature of ancient history. What is Stein a PhD in, anyway?

Kizarvexius, you wrote this in the thread you referenced:

When questioned about it, you remembered no source and never came back with one.

Do you have a better memory now, or is this still unsourced invention?

Whoa! I thought Kizarvexius was off the mark, but I found something that shows the Christians in Rome may not have been so innocent:

http://www.pbs.org/wnet/secrets/case_rome/clues.html

You may be confusing your sources a little here. The word “cretin” entered English in 1779, from a French dialect word cretin, meaning “Christian” {compare the standard French chretien}, all ultimately derived from the Latin christianus.

As to well cretins were Christians, well, here we venture dangerously close to the murky realms of pop etymology. Cretin was a word in a French Alpine dialect, and some sources claim that the locals were Christians, or cretins, because living up in the mountains they were closer to God. This seems extremely dubious, and also doesn’t explain the connection with idiocy.

An explanation which does is that living up in the mountains, the locals had dietary deficiencies and thus thyroid problems, leading in turn to problems such as goitre and congenital mental problems: simpletons, in other words. The term cretin, or Christian, was supposedly a reference to the fact that these poor wretches were innocents and thus subject to God’s compassion too.

Which is all well and good, except that it’s both convoluted and suspiciously neat, which is often a warning sign in these types of explanations that it may not be, ahem, gospel.

I thought it was from the old concept that the severely learning-disabled are under God’s special protection since they can’t look out for themselves. The AHD etymology corroborates that the word originated from Alpine valleys, but traces the semantics this way: “Vulgar Latin christianus. Christian, human being, poor fellow.” The attempts to derive it from altitude won’t even get off the ground.

In Rumantsch and Italian, two other Alpine languages, the word for “Christian” has been generalized to mean ‘human being’. (So non-Christians are animals or what? I never quite got this.) What I don’t get is how the meaning “poor fellow” was derived from “human being.” In the sense that “humanitarianism” means to care for the disadvantaged?

Cretinism as a clinical term has a specialized meaning: “A congenital condition caused by a deficiency of thyroid hormone during prenatal development and characterized in childhood by dwarfed stature, mental retardation, dystrophy of the bones, and low basal metabolism.”

Has Professor Gerhard Baudy found some new texts about first-century Roman Christians that the rest of the world is unfamiliar with? Given that up to now we have had exactly one non-Biblical 1st-century reference to Christians (and even that has been called into question), this would be an astounding discovery.

From what I can gather, the intention - assuming that the eytomology is valid - was that calling the mentally handicapped who were endemic in the Alpine valleys “Christian” was to emphasise that they were God’s creatures like everyone else, and as such shouldn’t be shunned, ostracised or mocked.

As for Christian referring to “human being” in general: well, given that in pre-Reformation times there weren’t any other faiths {apart from Judaism} in Europe, and presumably no widespread knowledge of faiths other than Islam or Judaism, perhaps Christian was synonymous with human. Anyone know how those of other faiths were referred to?

There’s always the old “Alexamenos Worships His God” graffiti found in Rome, dated to the 2nd century A.D.

Asimov’s Guide to the Bible. Also, FWIW, Robert Graves’ historical novel King Jesus.

Just wanted to agree with this. Sulpicius preserving a quotation from Tacitus that no other source at the time has is no special case, in fact many quotations we have from ancient texts only come from one source, fragmentary or not. By Sulpicius’ time, manuscripts of Tacitus might have been rare or non-existent in many places, and he could have even copied the quotation from an intermediary, non-Tacitean source (I’m pretty sure this is what my tutor last term, one of the biggest kahunas in 'non-pagan religions under the Romans round here, thinks).

And Tacitus reporting a story sensationalistically and with a ‘conservative’ bias (i.e. senatorial, ‘old time religion’ &c) is absolutely par for the course. Stein is weak here, if not deliberately misleading.

GIGObuster, when the issue is of a previously unknown and uncited source of information about early Christians, confirmation is not normally supplied by referencing a whole raft of previously unknown and uncited sources.

BrainGlutton, Asimov says no such thing.

Absolutely no mention of “‘Christians’ was originally ‘Chrestians,’ Greek for ‘simpletons.’”

DaphneBlack, while I said Stein must be approached with caution, his argument doesn’t turn on the later manuscript’s similarities. That’s a confirming point to his earlier paragraph. I’d be interested in someone examining that.