Spousal privelege

Does it apply to things that happened before marriage?

Say I was a secretary for someone, and as such I witnessed her embezzle a million dollars. Embezzlement turns me on, so we start a relationship and get married. Now the Feds start investigating. Can they compel me to testify against my spouse regarding things that happened before we were married?

IANAL, but isn’t the purpose of the law to keep you from being put in the position of having to decide whether to incriminate your spouse or commit perjury? What she did and when wouldn’t be relevant, since the law is intended to protect you.

From Wikipedia

So I guess you can be forced to testify about stuff that happened before you were married.

If you knew about the embezzlement before you were hitched, though, and if testifying about it could expose you to criminal charges yourself, then I guess you could assert your 5th Amendment right not to incriminate yourself.

Huh. So the emphasis is on confidentiality rather than to protect the partner from emotional pain or undue temptation to lie in court? Is it the same idea as protecting information about crimes that are confessed to a priest?

I think so, yeah. It sounds like the idea is that you have a right to assume that anything you say to your spouse is confidential and private.

This reminds me of a Law & Order episode I saw recently that had me wondering about this (Yes, I know that any resemblance between L&O and actual law is coincidental).

The main plot was that a con man (played by Henry Winkler) and his girlfriend both married rich elderly people with the intent to kill them and inherit their respective fortunes. They had apparently pulled this on others in the past.

At any rate, as the detectives started closing in, they confessed all of their nefarious plans to their spouses, on the basis that the spouses couldn’t testify against them. This strategy was eventually foiled when it was found out that the con couple had married each other in Mexico and never divorced, so the subsequent marriages were void and privilege did not apply.

BUT…I always thought that spousal privilege meant that a spouse could not be compelled to testify. Does it also mean that a person cannot voluntarily testify against their spouse? I didn’t think this was the case, but this episode made it seem that way.

From the linked quote above:

Thanks, I guess that answers my question.

There’s a lot of variation between states on this issue:

Virginia, like many states, recognizes two kinds of marital privilege: evidentiary and testimonial.

Evidentiary:

(Emphasis added).

The bolded portion is different from the rule in most states, where the privilege dies with the marriage.

Testimonial:

Again, it depends which court one is in. In federal court, the testifying witness holds the testimonial privilege and can waive it. http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=445&invol=40

There is a separate federal privilege for confidential marital communications, but it would not apply to premarital communications.

How does this apply to gay marriages?

Since they are recognized in Massachusetts, but not by the Federal government, could a married person use the spousal privilege to refuse to testify against their spouse in a state court, but be required to testify in a Federal Court?

And what about states with Civil Unions? Can one partner in a civil union be forced to testify against their spouse?