I hijacked another thread to ask about this, so thought I’d ask again properly. Are these two interchangable? Are there different rules for each? Examples would be helpful too!
Thanks. Apparently, though, that analysis is purely at the sentence level (with socio-linguistic references). From what I understand, there’s an important discursive dimension which that kind of analysis can’t take into consideration. (The abstract implies as much.)
They are both contractions for “it is not.” Grammatically they mean exactly the same thing but the emphasis and connotation may be different depending on the speaker’s intent. The selection is a matter of style, not grammar.
It is generally described as “non-standard”. You won’t find it in writing by professional journalists or authors but you might hear it in some everyday speech. Whether you find it “acceptable” has to do with whether you are a prescriptivist or descriptivist.
Well, I doubt you will find “ain’t” in editorial copy that is not quoting somebody. I’m fairly certain most, if not all, newspaper style guides forbid “ain’t” in that context. Maybe in an opinion piece, you might find it.
That said, for “professional authors,” of course it’s used.
I remember in sixth grade, when a bunch of us were trying out for speaking roles in the school play, and one of the lines was “You said it was [something], but it’s not!” Of course to 11-year old ears, we chose to hear “but it’s snot!” This wasn’t supposed to be a funny line, but we giggled every time someone delivered it.
My friend and I got wise and when it was our turn, we subsituted “but it isn’t!” which diffused the inappropriate levity :).
