Point taken, re: Froot Loops. However, the parallel still holds. The point I’m making is that the primary clause performs two functions, regardless of the subordinate:
[ul][li]It (like the 1st, 3rd, 4th, 9th, and 10th Amendments) implicitly acknowledges a pre-existing state of freedom - THE RIGHT OF THE PEOPLE TO KEEP AND BEAR ARMS SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED, as opposed to the Amendments which confer rights that do not exist naturally - for example, those that exist only as a function of our legal system, such as the 5th, 6th, 7th, and 8th (“The accused shall enjoy the right…”, “Excessive bail shall not be required…”).[/li][li]And it also declares whose right is being protected: THE RIGHT OF THE PEOPLE.[/ul][/li]
Also, that same “other relatively famous document” would sound ludicrous if, instead of “We the people…”, it began with “We the states…” wouldn’t it?
My point is that the rights defined in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th, and 8th Amendments all describe INDIVIDUAL rights. The 1st, 2nd, 4th, 9th, and 10th Amendments use the term of art, “THE PEOPLE”, all in the same manner - indicating an individual right.
Additionally, the 9th and 10th specifically and clearly differentiate “THE PEOPLE” from “THE STATES”. Wouldn’t it be odd for the 2nd to be the only Amendment using “THE PEOPLE” to mean “THE STATES”, whereas “THE PEOPLE” and “THE STATES” are clearly differentiated elsewhere in the same text?
And to answer your (and minty’s) question regarding an implication of an individual right by a SC ruling, see this post, in which I answered minty’s question for what seems like the 50th time. It is not explicit language, but assuming the reasoning module in your brain is working properly, it seems fairly obvious. (that’s not meant as an insult, rather as an attempt at being funny) I’d like to apologize in advance for the tone of my post, but certain posters have a knack for raising my ire.