# A drug question.

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-drug-question/63189>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [April 24, 2001, 9:29pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-drug-question/63189 "2001-04-24T21:29:40Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 2\
**Page:** 1

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**Author:** ![RocknRoll\_Killing\_Machine](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/5daacb/32.png) [@RocknRoll\_Killing\_Machine](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RocknRoll_Killing_Machine)\
**Post date:** [April 24, 2001, 9:29pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-drug-question/63189/1 "2001-04-24T21:29:40Z")

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If I had an ounce of cocaine, and dropped it into a pound of flour, or whatever is used to cut cocaine; would I legally speaking, have a pound and an ounce of cocaine?

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**Author:** ![cainxinth](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/7bcc69/32.png) [@cainxinth](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/cainxinth)\
**Post date:** [April 24, 2001, 10:48pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-drug-question/63189/2 "2001-04-24T22:48:47Z")

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the cutting agent is irrelevent so long as the resultant product is homogenous. so yes, you would have a pound and and an oz of really shitty coke.