# A mathematical proof involving binomial coefficients and Pascal's Triangle

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597>\
**Category:** Factual Questions\
**Created:** [January 4, 2004, 6:13am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597 "2004-01-04T06:13:56Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 20\
**Page:** 1

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 6:13am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/1 "2004-01-04T06:13:56Z")

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Hi, this is my first cool post to these forums. 🙂

I have an analytical paper to write for my math class, and one step ground me to a halt:

"By comparing the corresponding coefficients of the expansions of (1+x)^n(1+x)^k and (1+x)^(n-k), show that

sum(from z=0 to k)[(k C z)\*(n C (r-z))]=(n+k) C (r)

The capital C’s are of nCr, which gives the value of the number in row n, number r of Pascal’s Triangle.

Although I have already tried very hard to come up with a proof, I am stumped beyond recognition. I have never been so thoroughly owned. I’m not really requiring that you give me a complete proof; I’m asking that you give me some tips, some breakthroughts?

Thanks for any feedback. 🙂

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**Author:** ![KP](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/a9adbd/32.png) [@KP](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/KP)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 6:32am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/2 "2004-01-04T06:32:53Z")

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Welcome to the SDMB, tFr.

I regret to inform you that “homework questions” are generally frowned upon here. Just FYI.

However, I don’t think I’d be out of line giving you this tip: do a few expansions and notice _why_ the coefficients are what they are, then look at Pascal’s triangle and ask why those coefficients are what they are. I think you’ll see the relationship quickly.

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**Author:** ![Achernar](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/e274bd/32.png) [@Achernar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Achernar)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 6:37am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/3 "2004-01-04T06:37:25Z")

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From the sound of it, you don’t know where to begin. Is that true? If you’ve made any progress at all, tell us. Then we can help you better.

**KP** ’s method sounds simple, but I don’t see how it helps. So, maybe that’s the best thing to do. I don’t know.

But here’s how I thought about it. You know that (1+x)[sup]n[/sup] (1+x)[sup]k[/sup] = (1+x)[sup]n+k[/sup], right? Each of those three things, expanded, is a polynomial whose coefficients you know. And the product of the first two must equal the third. Is that the tree you’ve been barking up?

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 6:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/4 "2004-01-04T06:54:01Z")

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I’ve tried the following:

a. Expressed the coefficients using summations:

sum(from x=0 to n)[nCi], sum(from y=0 to k)[nCk],  
sum(from z=0 to n-k)[nC(n-k)],

Then I expanded each one and tried to find some relation. No luck, as far as I could tell.

b. Expanded the binomials and tried to find some relation among the three. Still nothing, because the n-k is really getting on my nerves.

**KP** : Sorry I didn’t know about it before ☹

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**Author:** ![Achernar](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/e274bd/32.png) [@Achernar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Achernar)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 8:16am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/5 "2004-01-04T08:16:56Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by tFr \*  
> a. Expressed the coefficients using summations:
> 
> sum(from x=0 to n)[nCi], sum(from y=0 to k)[nCk],  
> sum(from z=0 to n-k)[nC(n-k)],
> 
> Then I expanded each one and tried to find some relation. No luck, as far as I could tell.

Okay, what are those summations supposed to represent? The coefficients themselves? Shouldn’t x, y, and z appear somewhere in there? What’s i? I think the first one is supposed to look something like this: SUM(x=0…n) [nCx]

I think you may be on the right track, but you’re mixing up your notation. Can you try writing it again very carefully?

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**Author:** ![MikeS](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/919ad9/32.png) [@MikeS](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/MikeS)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 3:23pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/6 "2004-01-04T15:23:06Z")

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Um… What may be fouling you up is that the problem should probably read (bolding mine):

> [@](#):
>
> "By comparing the corresponding coefficients of the expansions of (1+x)^n(1+x)^k and **(1+x)^(n+k)**, show that
> 
> sum(from z=0 to k)[(k C z)\*(n C (r-z))]=(n+k) C ®."

I don’t know if this is just an error in what you typed in or whether your teacher/professor gave it wrong, but you said that the “(n-k)” was giving you difficulty when it shouldn’t really be there.

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 8:00pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/7 "2004-01-04T20:00:30Z")

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@ **MikeS** : That was the problem, verbatim. It said n-k. Judging from the general quality of the copy I got, it shouldn’t be printed wrong. Though I can’t rule out a problem at the source of my copy.

@ **Achernar:**

sum(from x=0 to n)[nCx], sum(from y=0 to k)[nCy],  
sum(from z=0 to n-k)[(n-k)C(z)],

Oops sorry.

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**Author:** ![Q.E.D](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/q/51bf81/32.png) [@Q.E.D](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Q.E.D)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 8:22pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/8 "2004-01-04T20:22:30Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by KP \*  
> **I regret to inform you that “homework questions” are generally frowned upon here. Just FYI.**

Not at all. What we _do_ frown upon are people trying to get homework questions done by deceit. Asking for help honestly, showing what efforts have been made so far, and making a genuine effort to do the work oneself is fine.

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**Author:** ![MikeS](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/919ad9/32.png) [@MikeS](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/MikeS)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 8:28pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/9 "2004-01-04T20:28:41Z")

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Well, then, I’m stymied. I can do it in about five lines if it’s (n+k), but if it’s (n-k) it doesn’t make any sense to be comparing coefficients between two polynomials that aren’t equal. My money’s on a typo at this point, but I’ll see if I can figure something else out…

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 8:41pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/10 "2004-01-04T20:41:00Z")

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Hmm, I never seriously considered it a typo before. I’ve been grinding away for days. If this really is a typo, someone’s gonna find that the domain of their rectum has just expanded and intersected with a higher-dimensional space.

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**Author:** ![Achernar](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/e274bd/32.png) [@Achernar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Achernar)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 9:17pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/11 "2004-01-04T21:17:24Z")

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Yes, try doing it assuming that - should be a +. Even if it’s not a typo, you’ll make a whole lot of progress toward the right answer.

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 4, 2004, 9:17pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/12 "2004-01-04T21:17:30Z")

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Now I’m trying:  
sum(from x=0 to n)[nCx],  
sum(from y=0 to k)[nCy],  
sum(from z=0 to n-k)[(n-k)C(z)],

and I’m going to liberally use the identity nC(r-1) + nC®= (n+1)C®.

Stay tuned, this may be a breakthrough!

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**Author:** ![Jabba](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/b5e925/32.png) [@Jabba](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Jabba)\
**Post date:** [January 5, 2004, 12:34am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/13 "2004-01-05T00:34:50Z")

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It’s definitely n+k you need to consider. Remember, if two polynomials are equal, then the coefficients of x, x[sup]2[/sup], …, x[sup]r[/sup],… are equal in those two polynomials. Combine this idea with **Achernar’s** first hint.

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 5, 2004, 11:23pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/14 "2004-01-05T23:23:39Z")

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By the way, it was a typo. n-k should have been n+k.

_kills bureaucrats who made this possible_

I mad esome headway, now that I got that crap out of the way. This isn’t math class, this is a field course in how to get screwed.

The proof now comes to this:

(n+k) C (r+1) = (n+k) C ® + k C (r+1)

I arrived at it using the following:

(1+x)^k(1+x)^n = (1+x)^(n+k)  
(1+kx+(k C 2 )(x^2)…x^k)(1+nx+n C 2 (x^2)…x^n)=(1 + (n+k)x +…x^(n+k))  
Corresponding coefficients must be equal:  
Cx^r = Dx^r

Base case for x^1:  
(n+k)x=nx+kx=x((kC0)_(nC1)+(kC1)_(nC0)) which equals x(n+k) C 1.  
Which fits  
sum(from z=0 to k)[(k C z)\*(n C (r-z))]=(n+k) C ®

Did it for x^2 also. Base case.

Arrived at a hypothesis:  
sum(from z=0 to r)[(k C z)_(n C (r-z))]=(n+k) C ®  
Induction:  
sum(from z=0 to r+1)[(k C z)_(n C (r+1-z))]=(n+k) C (r+1)  
sum(from z=0 to r)[(k C z)\*(n C (r-z))]+(nC0)(kC(r+1))=(n+k) C (r+1)

(n+k) C ®+(kC(r+1))=(n+k) C (r+1)

Dead. Anyone? Tips? DOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOMED

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**Author:** ![MikeS](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/919ad9/32.png) [@MikeS](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/MikeS)\
**Post date:** [January 5, 2004, 11:41pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/15 "2004-01-05T23:41:22Z")

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Very very close. Think about it this way: you have the equation

> [@](#):
>
> (1+kx+(k C 2 )(x^2)…x^k)(1+nx+n C 2 (x^2)…x^n)=(1 + (n+k)x +…x^(n+k))

Suppose you were to multiply out the left-hand side of the equation. How could you get, say, an x^2 term? Well, there would be three of them: One from where the x^0 term of the first polynomial multiplies the x^2 term of the second polynomial; one where the x^1 term of the first multiplies the x^1 term of the second; and one where the x^2 term of the first multiplies the x^0 term of the second. What would the coefficients of each of these three terms be?

Once you’ve figured that out, you should be able to generalize from x^2 to x^r.

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 5, 2004, 11:45pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/16 "2004-01-05T23:45:37Z")

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Yeah, I got that part, but before I just deemed it wayy too complicated combinatorically to sort that out. Thanks for pointing it out to me; I’ll definitely go down that path.

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**Author:** ![Achernar](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/e274bd/32.png) [@Achernar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Achernar)\
**Post date:** [January 5, 2004, 11:51pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/17 "2004-01-05T23:51:50Z")

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> [@](#):
>
> \*Originally posted by tFr \*  
> The proof now comes to this:
> 
> (n+k) C (r+1) = (n+k) C ® + k C (r+1)

Just to warn you, but this equation just isn’t so. You can check these by using a couple of sample values. For n = k = r = 1, you get:

2C2 = 2C1 + 1C2  
1 = 2 + 0

I agree with **MikeS** , and I don’t think that you need to use induction unless you mean to be ultra-rigorous. That is, I think that you can just state the value of C without proving it via induction. (Where C is the coefficient of the x[sup]r[/sup] term on the left-hand side.)

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 6, 2004, 1:38am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/18 "2004-01-06T01:38:02Z")

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Wow. You can declare something proven using just a few cases then a generalizing rule? I never knew that. Being a n00b to the math world isn’t all bad.

O\_o

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**Author:** ![Achernar](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/e274bd/32.png) [@Achernar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Achernar)\
**Post date:** [January 6, 2004, 1:53am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/19 "2004-01-06T01:53:01Z")

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No, that’s not the best way to do it. Don’t generalize from a few cases. But notice how **MikeS** was able to describe the x[sup]2[/sup] term without induction? Think along those lines.

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**Author:** ![tFr](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/6bbea6/32.png) [@tFr](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/tFr)\
**Post date:** [January 6, 2004, 7:07am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/a-mathematical-proof-involving-binomial-coefficients-and-pascals-triangle/222597/20 "2004-01-06T07:07:50Z")

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Coefficients of these x^2 terms are sum(from z=0 to 2)[(k C z)(n C (2-z)], correct? I show:

Based on:

(1+nx)(1+kx)=…knx^2  
1(1+nx+\*nC2)x^2)=…nC2 x^2  
1(1+kx+\*kC2)x^2)=…kC2 x^2

-\>that’s all the x^2 terms there are on the left side, therefore

(kC2)x^2 + knx^2 + (nC2)x^2  
=(kC2)x^2 + (kC1)(nC1)x^2 + (nC2)x^2  
=sum(from z=0 to 2)[(k C z)(n C (2-z)]x^2=(n+k)C(2)x^2

since Bx^r=Cx^r where B is an element of the set {sum(from i=0 to n)[(n C i)]\*sum(from j=0 to k)[(k C j)]} and C is an element of the set sum(from z=0 to n+k)[(n+k)Cz].

O\_O

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