The answers to these questions could depend in part by the internal accounting policy but speaking generally and with only a single car purchase and sale, then using the cost basis of inventory as defined in ASC 330 you would assign a value of $500 because that is what you paid for it. It is also the value you would use for purposes of valuing inventory. When the car is sold for $1000 the car still had a carrying value of $500 (assuming no other changes) so for book purposes it had a value of $500. The sale transaction would yield net income of $500 all other things being equal.
If the car is impaired in some fashion then the write down should be recognized in the P&L in the period of impairment as an expense and reduction of the value of the asset.
Gain is not an equity account I answered the question wrong - I was trying to simplify things but the result was bad.
I actually answered a question little nemo wasn’t even asking, he was only asking about inventory - I was answering a question about sale of PPE. Ooops:(
Once the closing entries are performed, prior to the preparation of the balance sheet, the Revenue and COGS accounts are closed to Income Summary, and the $500 difference flows to Retained Earnings.
If that is incorrect or incomplete, corrections are welcome.
OK, I now get that a balance sheet report will take net profit or loss into consideration. Now I have another question: I was studying how adjusting entries are made, specifically “deferral” adjustments to spread out expenses or unearned revenue. The examples given start typically with something like “Insurance expense is debited and cash is credited”, and then you’re supposed to make an adjusting entry deferring the insurance expense over the relevant time period. What I don’t get is why anyone would have listed the expense up front, instead of just trading one asset for another- debit Prepaid Insurance and credit Cash- and then debit Insurance Expense as you go along. Was that just an example for demonstration purposes, or does the Cash Flow statement demand that any diminution of Cash be considered an expense?
Sometimes practically speaking, Purchase orders are routinely written as expenses, so that the preparers doesn’t have to take into consideration the term of the services being purchased. At year end, these can then be reviewed and depending on materiality, the choice is made to defer them. You’re correct that the PO could have been made out to the Prepaid asset from the beginning, but functionally this doesn’t always happen.
Some of us real accountants are a little busy right now so I don’t have time to read all the words above but…
Your basic error in logic is thinking that the P&L accounts don’t get closed out to equity until the end of the year. They affect equity with every P&L transaction.