# Amn't. An American English question. **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [May 21, 2001, 9:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122 "2001-05-21T21:03:22Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 18\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![thinksnow](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/thinksnow/32/2849_2.png) [@thinksnow](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/thinksnow)\ **Post date:** [May 21, 2001, 9:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/1 "2001-05-21T21:03:22Z")
Is not- Isn’t. Are not- Aren’t. Was not- wasn’t. Will not- won’t. Can not- can’t. Do not- don’t. Am not- amn’t? Why not (not whyn’t) have this contraction? Ain’t is supposedly a bastardized “isn’t,” right, that’s not the solution. Is it a “m-n” phonetics thing? Okay, I’ll grant that this might be more mundane, but it’s a question, so I’m putting it here. ---
**Author:** ![gwar](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/g/96bed5/32.png) [@gwar](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/gwar)\ **Post date:** [May 21, 2001, 9:27pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/2 "2001-05-21T21:27:42Z")
I’m no English teacher, but I believe “am” is only used in conjunction, and preceded by the word “I” (except maybe in ebonics or something). Because the words “I” and “am” are so commonly used as a contraction anyway (“I’m”), I think there was no need to make the contraction “amn’t”. When saying “I am not”, it is shortened to “I’m not”. Plus, it’s hard to say “amn’t”. ---
**Author:** ![mongrel\_8](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/e274bd/32.png) [@mongrel\_8](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/mongrel_8)\ **Post date:** [May 21, 2001, 9:53pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/3 "2001-05-21T21:53:10Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by gwar \* > \*\*Plus, it’s hard to say “amn’t”. \*\* That’s the reason we got **ain’t**. 🙂 ---
**Author:** ![mongrel\_8](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/e274bd/32.png) [@mongrel\_8](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/mongrel_8)\ **Post date:** [May 21, 2001, 10:01pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/4 "2001-05-21T22:01:38Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by gwar \* > \*\*Plus, it’s hard to say “amn’t”. \*\* That’s the reason we got **ain’t**. 🙂 ---
**Author:** ![racinchikki](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/eada6e/32.png) [@racinchikki](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/racinchikki)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 12:54am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/5 "2001-05-22T00:54:00Z")
although i am not a linguist… my semihijack WAG on ain’t… am not amn’t drop the m for ease of pronunciation, it’s an’t in dialect, that’d be pronounced ain’t “am is only used in contraction” Huh? Maybe I’m missing something, but am is used outside of contraction… it’s the “I” form of “to be”. It’s just that in spoken English it’s usually pronounced I’m I get into trouble with compound contractions like I’d’ve (I would have) ---
**Author:** ![Chronos](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/chronos/32/134_2.png) [@Chronos](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Chronos)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 1:05am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/6 "2001-05-22T01:05:08Z")
“Am not” = “Ain’t”. Yeah, the letters don’t match up right, but then again, you’ve also got “will not” = “won’t”, and nobody complains about that. The only problem with “ain’t” is that it’s often misused for “is not” or some other construction. **gwar** didn’t say that “am” was only used in contraction, but in conjunction-- That is to say, with another word. Of course, this doesn’t help when the word order is changed… I’m right, amn’t I? ---
**Author:** ![Just\_Ed](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/j/e19b73/32.png) [@Just\_Ed](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Just_Ed)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 1:28am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/7 "2001-05-22T01:28:50Z")
The consensus is correct - “am not” = “ain’t.” Check [this](http://www2.yourdictionary.com/library/drlang003.html) article from [http://www.yourdictionary.com](http://www.yourdictionary.com). ---
**Author:** ![thinksnow](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/thinksnow/32/2849_2.png) [@thinksnow](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/thinksnow)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 1:39am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/8 "2001-05-22T01:39:24Z")
Well, I’ll be dipped! I guess that’s my one new thing to learn today. Thanks, y’all. ---
**Author:** ![Kalt](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/b9e5f3/32.png) [@Kalt](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Kalt)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 2:56am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/9 "2001-05-22T02:56:32Z")
hehe when i was a wee kid i used to say amn’t all the time. The thing is, the only context “am not” is ever said is “i am not” … which is 3 syllables. “I amn’t” is three syllables too. No shorter or easier to say. “I’m not”, however, is two syllables - which is the purpose of a contraction… to contract! So, since we have “i’m” we don’t need “amn’t” … ---
**Author:** ![hazel-rah](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/h/73ab20/32.png) [@hazel-rah](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/hazel-rah)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 5:25am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/10 "2001-05-22T05:25:01Z")
As has probably been covered, some dialects of English _do_ use the contraction “amn’t.” I was going to give an example from Joyce’s Ulysses, but that book is probably not the best choice for showing standard English usage. > [@](#): > > Is it a “m-n” phonetics thing? Yes. Two adjacent nasals in the consonant cluster of a syllable in American English is a no go. Notice all those words spelled with “mn” where the “n” is silent- damn, solemn, column, autumn. Then in other forms of those words that afford a nice syllable break between the two nasals, the /n/ comes back… autumnal, columnar, damnation. Practicing linguists forgive my playing fast and loose with the terminology, it’s been a few years. > [@](#): > > **Chronos** : The only problem with “ain’t” is that it’s often misused for “is not” or some other construction. I wouldn’t say it’s _misused_. “It ain’t no trouble” sounds perfectly grammatical to me. No reason it can’t do double duty as a contraction for the first and third person… our regular verbs hardly change and nobody gets confused. And grammar mavens can hardly complain it’s being misused if they won’t acknowledge its legitimacy in the first place. -fh ---
**Author:** ![Steve\_Wright](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/848f3c/32.png) [@Steve\_Wright](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Steve_Wright)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 9:06am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/11 "2001-05-22T09:06:46Z")
It’s not common, but some people actually use _amn’t_. I once shared a house with a guy who used this contraction regularly. It might be a restricted dialect thing - he came from Northern Scotland (Oban, to be specific), and I haven’t heard it anywhere else. (No, I haven’t read _Ulysses_…) ---
**Author:** ![hazel-rah](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/h/73ab20/32.png) [@hazel-rah](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/hazel-rah)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 10:09am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/12 "2001-05-22T10:09:47Z")
Just thought I’d add that I was reading _Endless Night_ by Agatha Christie tonight and came across both _mayn’t_ and _shan’t_ in the dialog. Characters are from the South of England. Book was written in the late sixties. -fh ---
**Author:** ![Balor](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/45deac/32.png) [@Balor](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Balor)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 10:27am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/13 "2001-05-22T10:27:26Z")
Hazel-rah is right. Joyce used “amn’t” in Ulysses because it is normal in Dublin, where the book is based. It is pronounced “ammint” or “ammunt”, which supports Kalt’s point that it is no shorter than “am not”. However, “I am not” has three strong syllables, while “I amn’t” flows trippingly off the tongue. The Irish never use “ain’t”, nor do the Scots or Welsh, I think It is used in some regions of Britain, but is not common today. This shows how languages develop from divergence of dialects. If modern media had not linked the two languages, the American language would not be English in 2001. I would use a foreign language to chat here. Even today, there is truth in George Bernard Shaw’s comment. As an Irishman looking at the US and Britain, he said they were two nations divided by a single language. Slan agus beanacht. ---
**Author:** ![thinksnow](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/thinksnow/32/2849_2.png) [@thinksnow](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/thinksnow)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 2:46pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/14 "2001-05-22T14:46:11Z")
> [@](#): > > \*\*hazel-rah b] > **…I was reading _Endless Night_ by Agatha Christie tonight and came across both _mayn’t_ and _shan’t_ in the dialog** “Mayn’t” I’ve not heard or seen in print too much, but “shan’t” I’ve used somewhat often…is that a proper word? ---
**Author:** ![Johanna](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/johanna/32/8318_2.png) [@Johanna](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Johanna)\ **Post date:** [May 22, 2001, 3:29pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/15 "2001-05-22T15:29:02Z")
I think it’s Irish rather than American. In Chapter One of James Joyce’s _Ulysses_, there is: > [@](#): > > _If anyone thinks that I amn’t divine, > He gets no free drinks when I’m making the wine_ [sup]Actually this doggerel, “The Ballad of Joking Jesus,” was written by Oliver St. John Gogarty (“Buck Mulligan”) and quoted by Joyce.[/sup] Then in Chapter 15 occurs this line: > [@](#): > > Amn’t I with you? Amn’t I your girl? Cissy’s your girl. ---
**Author:** ![hazel-rah](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/h/73ab20/32.png) [@hazel-rah](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/hazel-rah)\ **Post date:** [May 23, 2001, 7:51am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/16 "2001-05-23T07:51:54Z")
Since the OP (or thread title, anyway) referred to American English, I should mention that there are occurences of _amn’t_ in the USA, but only from a long time ago. I’d say it certainly isn’t acceptable in modern usage. [This](http://www.chicagohs.org/hadc/transcript/volumem/000-050/M041-054.htm) is testimony of William A. Patterson from 1886 in Chicago, USA… search for _amn’t_ and it’ll turn up. If it’s good enough for a courtroom, I’d say that’s standard usage. Although the image of the actual typed testimony makes it look like it could be a typo! Ah well. I remember a professor quoting one of the leaders of the women’s suffrage movement (where was that… Seneca Falls? That’s in America) saying “Amn’t I a woman?” No web cite for that, though. And I turned up a lot of hits on the web looking for _amn’t_ where non-native English speakers used it (mostly Russians for some reason), usually without any comment or correction by the fluent English speakers. And **thinksnow** , _shan’t_ is a proper word… too proper, in fact, to use in the United States without getting funny looks unless you’re visiting from England. -fh ---
**Author:** ![Johanna](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/johanna/32/8318_2.png) [@Johanna](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Johanna)\ **Post date:** [May 23, 2001, 12:04pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/17 "2001-05-23T12:04:41Z")
I thought that was Sojourner Truth’s immortal line — _ **"Ain’t I a woman!"** _ She was so strong and forceful, her enemies spread a rumor that she was really a man in drag, prompting the famous quote. There is a legend that when she was accused in court of being a man, she bared her breasts to prove she was a woman, but that may be apocryphal. Did she really say “amn’t”? If so, the word is so uncommon in America that I can easily imagine folklore soon smoothed it out to “ain’t.” ---
**Author:** ![Johanna](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/johanna/32/8318_2.png) [@Johanna](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Johanna)\ **Post date:** [May 24, 2001, 2:51am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/amnt-an-american-english-question/66122/18 "2001-05-24T02:51:48Z")
Read Soujourner Truth’s great [Ain’t I a Woman"](http://www.hartford-hwp.com/archives/45a/170.html) speech given in Akron, Ohio, 1851.