An interesting racial discrimination suit

I accept your concession.

Oh, that’s just too sad to make fun of.

Dictionaries don’t actually define words, contrary to popular belief.

They just give common, though not necessarily universal or even sole, understandings.

What does “even here” mean in this context? You are correct, incidentally. I was thinking of the Americans with Disabilities Act (which protects the disabled but not the, um… abled.)

“even here” isn’t too important. Folks said that protected classes only protected minorities (more or less); I disagreed. You seemed to say that there were exceptions such as EPA; I was saying that even in the case of the equal pay act the protection extended to men as well as women. Not trying to be snarky, not with you at least :).

Ah. Carry on, then. It is certainly true that the vast majority of federal and state civil rights legislation creates “protected classifications” rather than “protected classes”.

If that were true, the first element of a Title VII suit wouldn’t be to establish the plaintiff was a member of a protected class.

It’s whether the class being asserted is a protected class, not whether the plaintiff is a member of any protected class at all.

Wait, I just realized that you thought I was saying, “You’re always wrong, even here,” right? No–I was saying, “Even in this case, I think the idea that minorities are only the protected ones is wrong.” SOrry!

ENOUGH!

The “discussion” regarding the word ubiquitous has now ended in this thread.

Any further hijacks based on that word or the purpose or use of ditionaries will receive a Warning.

[ /Moderating ]

My description is based on reading the opinion notes issued by the judge who denied summary judgement for the defendants. I think it’s absurd to form an opinion without reading about the specifics of the case. Have you read it?

Burlington v. News Corporation, ET AL

Keep in mind, I am not offering an opinion on whether or not this guy is an asshole (I said I have no idea), and I do not disagree with your opinion about using the word in most social settings. This is not what the OP is asking. The question is: Does he have a case? Based on my reading of the entire opinion, I believe he does.

Regarding the word “finally” in his question: There is no description of what directly preceded his query, so there is no way to determine the precise context. I would like to know more about that myself, but from what is available, I am assuming he was referring to “finally” using it when discussing a relevant story on air, rather than the phrase “the n word”.

I read the OP’s link, and I think it’s absurd to chastize people for not digging up exactly the same cites you dug up, especially when they don’t change the particulars.

I don’t see how the cite supports that. “We can finally” suggests that this is something he’s been wanting to do for awhile, and it’s highly unlikely that he’s unaware of exactly how much shit a news station would catch for a white news anchor using that word on air. If he’s genuinely unaware of that, then see above re: protected status of stupid people.

Again, if he were asking the question in a legitimate way, that’s about the last way it’d get phrased.

Well, I’ll agree to disagree, because you are arguing points that aren’t salient to the case or the OP question. There is no indication that anyone directly involved in the case read his question the way you’re reading it (even the co-anchor who lobbied to get him terminated). Again, it’s not about whether or not the guy is an asshole, or if he had a nefarious motive for asking about usage.

Do have an opinion about the actual case? That is my interest here.

Keep in mind, the second point in the case is whether or not other employees (principally Joyce Evans, his co-anchor) acted with “discriminatory animus”, and there is ample evidence of this. Someone who worked there “leaked” the story about the meeting to the news, which is primarily what blew the incident out of proportion, and most probably the reason why he was unable to get another position in the industry. Again, he may or may not be an asshole, but that has no bearing on whether or not he has a case.

Actually, it is. Was he fired because he was an asshole, or was he fired because he was discriminated against? Not only is this the central question, but it’s what I’ve responded to repeatedly. I’m not sure why you’re asking me whether I have an opinion about the case, given my repeated expressions of opinions about the case, including opinions expressing ambivalence about the question of discrimination and admission that I don’t have a handle on the legal issues surrounding that part of the case.

But, again, I think there’s at least some evidence he was an asshole, and people responded to that, and that he was fired for that.

Could you point out that evidence?

There is only note of being offended by the use of the word itself, not the question. And no one believed he was using it as a slur, or questioned his motives. The employer never mentions it as cause, either.

Perhaps more information will come out in the trial, but right now I don’t see the defense claiming that at all.

Can I point out evidence that he was being an asshole? Of course. THat people responded to it? Of course. That he was fired for it? Not necessarily–where’s the defense’s statement in all of this?

Oh, wait–from your cite:

So, yes:

  1. He was an asshole.
  2. Others responded to his assholery.
  3. “The adverse publicity resulting from plaintiff’s [assholic] behavior . . . result[ed] in adverse publicity or notoriety for [the] company.”

The adverse publicity was the result of another employee “leaking” information about a private company meeting to the news. This itself is a violation that would result in termination, and is submitted as evidence of discriminatory animus on the part of his co-workers. The company never investigated that leak. How does that make him the asshole?

Plus, subsequent to receiving the warning, he was deemed “in compliance” and the employer indicated the desire that he return to work:

Seriously? The leak was about him being an asshole. The adverse publicity was the result of a leak ABOUT HIM BEING AN ASSHOLE. It could not have happened if he hadn’t been an asshole.

You asked for evidence of my claims. I provided it, and you’re disputing it–but I cannot figure out how, or why. In order for me to be incorrect, the employer’s thought processes on firing him had to be something like this:

-We’re firing you for violating your contract.
-The contract violation is that you brought adverse publicity on us.
-You had nothing to do with that violation–it was the leaker, not you, responsible for that adverse publicity.
-Your assholish behavior, which we previously told you was unacceptable, and which was the subject of the leak, had nothing to do with that adverse publicity.
-Bye bye!

That’s crazypants. EVEN IF they thought the leak was actionable–which is entirely their decision whether they want to investigate it–it’s their decision whether his part in the whole brouhaha was something worth firing him over.

Now, AGAIN: the issue of discrimination is one that I feel conflicted about. But that’s not the piece I’m talking about. The piece I’m talking about is the question that’s going to trial: was he fired because of discrimination (what you seem to think is perfectly clear), or was he fired because his employer thought his asshole behavior was worth firing him over?

Yes, I read that. That was prior to the adverse publicity. They’re not required to keep the jerk on-board if he’s going to be a liability to their brand. They didn’t pinky-swear they’d renew his contract. Once he became a liability, they dropped him.