To understand why that’s not right, you have to look at the original constitution as a whole.
One principle of interpreting it is that each part of the constitution was intended to mean something–so that a valid interpretation should not lead to the conclusion that a constitutional provision is meaningless.
First, you might suggest that the ninth amendment is talking about states’ ability to guarantee rights.
To answer this, you should look at the tenth amendment. That addresses the balance of power between states and the federal government. So while it isn’t at all crazy to suggest that the framers wanted to put in a provision saying that states retain powers not explicitly granted to the federal government, that’s the tenth amendment. So if that interpretation of the ninth amendment is correct, then the question is how itdoesn’t just read the ninth amendment to be duplicating the tenth and so meaningless?
Similarly, congress’ lawmaking power is found in Article I. If all the Ninth amendment is saying is that statutory “rights” can exist with statutory validity, all it’s saying is that congress can make laws. But Article I already says that. Again, that interpretation leaves the ninth amendment meaningless. (and it’s hard to imagine a statutory right as “inalienable”-as congress can just pass another statute and get rid of it).
Second, look at the text of the Ninth amendment. “The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.”
It’s comparing two groups of rights–one enumerated in the constitution, and others not enumerated in the constitution.
What’s important is that “others” is referring to the rights described in the first clause. The framers are in effect using the word RIGHT to apply to both the enumerated ones and the other ones.
It’s not saying “the enumeration in the constitution of certain rights shall not be construed to deny or disparage other things that aren’t rights”
I’d argue it’s unreasonable to argue that the framers meant “constitutional right” in the first clause, but meant something completely different when the second clause refers back to the exact same word in the first clause.
In understanding this, you have to understand what the framers meant by a “constitutional right.” In very broad terms, the framers understood the constitution to be a transfer of power from states to the federal government–and that the rights retained by the people were things the federal government couldn’t do. The original bill of rights was, in large part, just another part of the limitations on the power of the federal government.
James Madison proposed a few amendments that explicitly limited state powers. (they weren’t adopted), but what’s important is that the proposals began “No state shall violate…”–that the framers thought they had to specify that an amendment gave the right to stop a state from doing something (and implicitly, when they didn’t, all they limited was the federal government)
The application of the first ten amendments to the states didn’t happen till the fourteenth amendment came around in the 1860s (and was interpreted to incorporate the bill of rights much later)