Ask the Canuck law-talkin' guys about the Constitution of Canada!

This is what I posted on this point in one of the Assange threads:

The argument that the whole purpose of the Sweden extradition request is to let Sweden just turn around and hand him over to the US seems pretty far-fetched, in light of this principle of extradition law. Since the UK’s permission would be needed, why is it better for the US to need to seek permission from both the UK and Sweden, rather than just the UK? Doubles the chance that extradition will be refused.