# Baseball: Hit by ball while on base **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [July 11, 2006, 4:45pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-hit-by-ball-while-on-base/364050 "2006-07-11T16:45:45Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 3\ **Page:** 2
**Author:** ![RickJay](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/bb73d2/32.png) [@RickJay](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RickJay)\ **Post date:** [July 13, 2006, 3:30am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-hit-by-ball-while-on-base/364050/21 "2006-07-13T03:30:56Z")
> [@](#): > > But what if the 3rd base runner’s in foul territory, the 3rd baseman is playing deep, and a liner hits the runner, bounces off and lands in fair territory before it passes 3rd base? He scoots back to 3rd and the batter beats the throw to first. > > Do we have men on first and third, or is this just a foul ball? Of course, if the batter had less than two strikes, he now has at least one - or even two - on him. Correct? Foul ball, play is dead. Rule 2.00, “Foul Ball,” specifically states that a ball that directly touches an umpire or player in foul territory is foul. Such a ball cannot become fair by any subsequent action. ---
**Author:** ![Contrapuntal](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/e274bd/32.png) [@Contrapuntal](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Contrapuntal)\ **Post date:** [August 12, 2006, 1:07pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-hit-by-ball-while-on-base/364050/22 "2006-08-12T13:07:31Z")
[QUOTE=Freddy the Pig] Assuming that the runner was struck on a part of his body that was over fair territory (see below), and that the ball hadn’t yet passed an infielder, the runner is out. [/QUOTE] Why is a pitcher not considered to be an infielder? Surely any ball that reaches a base has gone past the pitcher. And the pitcher can make defensive plays. For that matter, it is possible, although obviously highly unlikely, for an outfielder to be between home and a base. What then? Is the rule specific to infielders, or just fielders? Thanks in advance. ---
**Author:** ![Freddy\_the\_Pig](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/f/a587f6/32.png) [@Freddy\_the\_Pig](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Freddy_the_Pig)\ **Post date:** [August 12, 2006, 9:13pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-hit-by-ball-while-on-base/364050/23 "2006-08-12T21:13:04Z")
[QUOTE=Contrapuntal] Why is a pitcher not considered to be an infielder? Surely any ball that reaches a base has gone past the pitcher. [/QUOTE] The pitcher _can_ be considered an infielder for purpose of this rule, but remember, it’s more than just a matter of the ball having “gone past” an infielder in a geometric sense. The ball has to go “through, or by” or be “deflected by” an infielder before runners are absolved of their responsibility to avoid batted balls. Two examples: 1. Runner running between second and third, hit by a ball in front of the shortstop. Do we absolve the runner of his responsibility to avoid the ball, because it had “gone past” the pitcher, in the sense that the pitcher was only 60 feet from the plate and the runner was 120 feet from the plate when struck? No, we do not. The pitcher had no chance to make a play on the ball, the SS did, and the runner is out. 2. Nubber hit down the third base line, pitcher is the only fielder with a chance to make the play. He tries to make a bare-hand pick-up and misses, after which the ball strikes a runner coming down the line from third to home, in fair territory. Do we absolve the runner in this case? Yes, because the pitcher, an “infielder” for purpose of this rule, had a chance to make a play on the ball and missed. Runner safe. [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-hit-by-ball-while-on-base/364050.md?page=1)