# baseball question **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [June 21, 2002, 10:44pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348 "2002-06-21T22:44:45Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 19\ **Page:** 1
**Author:** ![vl\_mungo](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/v/bc8723/32.png) [@vl\_mungo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/vl_mungo)\ **Post date:** [June 21, 2002, 10:44pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/1 "2002-06-21T22:44:45Z")
Quick and simple… has any major league batter ever been all three outs in an inning? ---
**Author:** ![hajario](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hajario/32/171_2.png) [@hajario](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/hajario)\ **Post date:** [June 21, 2002, 11:10pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/2 "2002-06-21T23:10:48Z")
[Apparantly not.](http://www.baseballology.com/dearruss/article.php3?ArticleID=81) Though two outs in an inning has happened. Haj ---
**Author:** ![Mandarax](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/df705f/32.png) [@Mandarax](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Mandarax)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 1:13am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/3 "2002-06-22T01:13:40Z")
The explanation in **hajario** ’s link doesn’t hold up. > [@](#): > > I searched through a ton of data and feel safe telling you that nobody has made three outs in an inning. 23 is the most plate appearances in one inning. AL-23 Boston vs Detroit June 18, 1953 seventh inning. NL-23 Chicago vs Detroit September 6, 1883 seventh inning. Divide 9 into 23 and you get 2.5. If there is an average of 2.5 (actually, 2.6 is more accurate) at bats (actually, plate appearances) per player, then 5 players came up 3 times. Any time there are 19 or more batters per inning, at least one player comes up 3 times. Maybe there hasn’t ever been a player who made all three outs in an inning, but this explanation doesn’t tell us anything. He also talks about there being “4 outs” in an inning several times. There have been as many as 4 _strikeouts_ a few times, but only 3 counted as outs (due to a dropped 3[sup]rd[/sup] strike on one). ---
**Author:** ![Lamar\_Mundane](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/l/85f322/32.png) [@Lamar\_Mundane](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Lamar_Mundane)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 2:13am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/4 "2002-06-22T02:13:08Z")
\*\*Hijack Four outs in one inning\*\* Bases loaded, no outs. Batter hits a line drive into the gap, but a diving catch is made, trapping the runners on first and second way off base. Outfielder throws to second (two out) who relays to first for the triple play. However, while this was happening, the runner on third tagged up and made it home before the third out at first, scoring a legal run. The defending team thinks he left third before the ball was caught, and throw to third appealing the play. The umpire has to make a call - safe or out? Umpire agrees he left early and calls the runner out for the fourth legal out of the inning, nullifying the run. I don’t know if it has happened in MLB, but it could. ---
**Author:** ![hajario](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hajario/32/171_2.png) [@hajario](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/hajario)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 2:27am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/5 "2002-06-22T02:27:47Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by Mandarax \* > \*\*The explanation in **hajario** ’s link doesn’t hold up. If there is an average of 2.5 (actually, 2.6 is more accurate) at bats (actually, plate appearances) per player, then 5 players came up 3 times. Any time there are 19 or more batters per inning, at least one player comes up 3 times. Maybe there hasn’t ever been a player who made all three outs in an inning, but this explanation doesn’t tell us anything. > > He also talks about there being “4 outs” in an inning several times. There have been as many as 4 _strikeouts_ a few times, but only 3 counted as outs (due to a dropped 3[sup]rd[/sup] strike on one). \*\* You’re correct. Even if the 23 plate appearances cited was for the _entire_ inning, one side could have only had three of them leaving 20 for the other side. I wrote an email to the author of the letter in the link asking for clarification. I’ll post any reply. Haj ---
**Author:** ![BobT](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/8e8cbc/32.png) [@BobT](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/BobT)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 7:27am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/6 "2002-06-22T07:27:56Z")
According to the folks at [http://www.retrosheet.org](http://www.retrosheet.org) there hasn’t been a case of one batter making 3 single outs during an inning. There have been several instances where a batter has made a single out and hit into a double play in the same inning. That’s not that unusual of an event and happens about once every two years. ---
**Author:** ![ftg](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/ftg/32/2801_2.png) [@ftg](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/ftg)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 3:45pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/7 "2002-06-22T15:45:52Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by Lamar Mundane \* > Hijack > > Four outs in one inning > … > I don’t know if it has happened in MLB, but it could. It happens once or twice a decade. The last time I can recall the situation arising, the defense didn’t appeal. At the end of the game, the head umpire visited both clubhouses to point out the correct score. (The scoreboard had not counted the run.) Why he didn’t have the scoreboard corrected at the start of the next half inning is beyond me. This was 5+ years ago in the midwest. Note that the more common setup is runners 1st and 3rd with 1 out. And some people think the infield fly rule is obtuse. ---
**Author:** ![RM\_Mentock](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e274bd/32.png) [@RM\_Mentock](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RM_Mentock)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 6:15pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/8 "2002-06-22T18:15:08Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by Lamar Mundane \* > \*\*\*\*Hijack > > Four outs in one inning\*\* > > Bases loaded, no outs. Batter hits a line drive into the gap, but a diving catch is made, trapping the runners on first and second way off base. Outfielder throws to second (two out) who relays to first for the triple play. However, while this was happening, the runner on third tagged up and made it home before the third out at first, scoring a legal run.\*\* Back up. That would not be a legal run. ---
**Author:** ![KneadToKnow](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/kneadtoknow/32/3999_2.png) [@KneadToKnow](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/KneadToKnow)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 6:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/9 "2002-06-22T18:20:03Z")
The “Four outs in one inning” scenario described above notwithstanding, is it not _theoretically_ possible to have, in effect, an infinite number of strikeouts recorded in an inning, since a dropped third strike still counts as a strikeout for the pitcher but must be thrown to first (or the hitter-runner tagged) to count as a true “out”? This is my understanding, and the basis of a truism I’ve heard that “You can have four strikeouts, but you can’t have two double plays.” ---
**Author:** ![David\_Simmons](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/9de053/32.png) [@David\_Simmons](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/David_Simmons)\ **Post date:** [June 22, 2002, 7:05pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/10 "2002-06-22T19:05:41Z")
[hijack]Regarding four outs in an inning. In one New York Yankees game the opponent, and I forget who it was, baserunners got all tangled up on the basepaths and a bunch of them wound up near home plate where Yogi Berra tagged several of them out. The was a big brouhaha about it in which Yogi didn’t participate. Questioned about the play later he answered, "All I know is that we made four outs and at least three of them count. ---
**Author:** ![Lamar\_Mundane](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/l/85f322/32.png) [@Lamar\_Mundane](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Lamar_Mundane)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 12:39am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/11 "2002-06-23T00:39:53Z")
> [@](#): > > Back up. That would not be a legal run. Yes, it would. Rule 4.09 - A run scores when a runner touches home plate before the third out is made, EXCEPT that no run can score when the third out is the result of a force play, or when the batter is put out before touching first base. ---
**Author:** ![BobT](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/8e8cbc/32.png) [@BobT](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/BobT)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 12:46am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/12 "2002-06-23T00:46:15Z")
**Lamar Mundane’s** situation almost turned up in a Mets-Yankees game back in 2000 I believe. The Mets scored the winning run on a sacrifice fly with one out (the catch made it two outs) and for some reason, the runner on first decided to drift off the base. However, the runner on third scored before the Yankees could force out the runner on first. ---
**Author:** ![Hari\_Seldon](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/hari_seldon/32/5173_2.png) [@Hari\_Seldon](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Hari_Seldon)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 3:07pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/13 "2002-06-23T15:07:06Z")
Actually, here is the likeliest fourth out scenario and I think it does happen from time to time. One out, runners first and third, batter hits a line drive to the left side hole. Speared by 3rd baseman who throws to first to complete the double play while the runner from third just goes home and crosses the plate before the third out. The 3rd baseman could have just trotted over and touched third, but he didn’t, maybe never looked. Now the first baseman throws to third where they appeal to the umpire and get the 4th out call. (The out at first was also, technically, an appeal play, but it is so obvious that the umpire does not wait to be appealed to. One thing I am a bit curious about is whether the timing of an appeal out is when the event happened or when the umpire grants the appeal.) I don’t think this counts as a triple play even though there were three outs made. Sort of. ---
**Author:** ![David\_Simmons](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/9de053/32.png) [@David\_Simmons](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/David_Simmons)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 3:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/14 "2002-06-23T15:20:27Z")
[another hijack] vl\_mungo - hmmmmm. Are you any kin to this [Van Lingle Mungo](http://home.graffiti.net/vl_mungo/)?[/another hijack] ---
**Author:** ![RM\_Mentock](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e274bd/32.png) [@RM\_Mentock](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RM_Mentock)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 5:14pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/15 "2002-06-23T17:14:27Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by Lamar Mundane \* > \*\*Yes, it would. \*\* My error ---
**Author:** ![Mandarax](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/df705f/32.png) [@Mandarax](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Mandarax)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 5:53pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/16 "2002-06-23T17:53:57Z")
But wouldn’t the “batter is put out before touching first base” provison of rule 4.09 be applicable in **Lamar Mundane** ’s scenario? The batter was put out when the line drive was caught. ---
**Author:** ![BobT](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/8e8cbc/32.png) [@BobT](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/BobT)\ **Post date:** [June 23, 2002, 6:01pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/17 "2002-06-23T18:01:06Z")
In the scenario described above, the first out of the inning is the one made by the batter when he lines out. Out #2 is the runner on second Out #3 is the runner on first If the runner on third crossed home plate before the runner on first was retired, then it would count. ---
**Author:** ![David\_Simmons](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/9de053/32.png) [@David\_Simmons](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/David_Simmons)\ **Post date:** [June 24, 2002, 12:56am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/18 "2002-06-24T00:56:18Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by Mandarax \* > \*\*But wouldn’t the “batter is put out before touching first base” provison of rule 4.09 be applicable in **Lamar Mundane** ’s scenario? The batter was put out when the line drive was caught. \*\* But catching the line drive removes the force and the runner(s) _could_ return to their bases if that were desirable. On a ground out to first base, the force is on until the ball reaches the first baseman. ---
**Author:** ![Lance\_Turbo](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/lance_turbo/32/6156_2.png) [@Lance\_Turbo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Lance_Turbo)\ **Post date:** [June 24, 2002, 4:03am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/115348/19 "2002-06-24T04:03:02Z")
From the [mlb.com](http://mlb.com) official rules definition of terms section. > [@](#): > > A FORCE PLAY is a play in which a runner legally loses his right to occupy a base by reason of the batter becoming a runner. Confusion regarding this play is removed by remembering that frequently the “force” situation is removed during the play. Example: Man on first, one out, ball hit sharply to first baseman who touches the bag and batter runner is out. The force is removed at that moment and runner advancing to second must be tagged. If there had been a runner on third or second, and either of these runners scored before the tag out at second, the run counts. Had the first baseman thrown to second and the ball then had been returned to first, the play at second was a force out, making two outs, and the return throw to first ahead of the runner would have made three outs. In that case, no run would score. Example: Not a force out. One out. Runner on first and third. Batter flies out. Two out. Runner on third tags up and scores. Runner on first tries to retouch before throw from fielder reaches first baseman, but does not get back in time and is out. Three outs. \*\*If, in umpire’s judgment, the runner from third touched home before the ball was held at first base, the run counts. \*\* Emphasis mine.