# baseball question **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [May 29, 2005, 1:23am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941 "2005-05-29T01:23:21Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 20\ **Page:** 2
**Author:** ![BobT](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/8e8cbc/32.png) [@BobT](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/BobT)\ **Post date:** [May 29, 2005, 6:25am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/21 "2005-05-29T06:25:31Z")
Since there is a rule in place for what to do if a base gets dislodged and is not there anymore, which is for the umpire to use the place where the base would have been as a point of reference, it would make sense to me that the opposite would also hold true. That is, if the base is covered up and not able to be seen, the umpire would just judge where the base should be. ---
**Author:** ![Martin\_Hyde](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/47e85d/32.png) [@Martin\_Hyde](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Martin_Hyde)\ **Post date:** [May 29, 2005, 6:50am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/22 "2005-05-29T06:50:14Z")
Yes, and if the base is dislodged while a runner slides in to it then the runner isn’t out as long as he’s on the base, even if the base if 10 feet away from its original spot. ---
**Author:** ![Jeff\_Lichtman](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/jeff_lichtman/32/1531_2.png) [@Jeff\_Lichtman](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Jeff_Lichtman)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 7:47am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/23 "2005-05-30T07:47:06Z")
> [@Martin Hyde](#): > > Yes, and if the base is dislodged while a runner slides in to it then the runner isn’t out as long as he’s on the base, even if the base if 10 feet away from its original spot. I’d love to see an enterprising player pick up a dislodged base and carry it with him. This would make it easier to reach the next base without being put out, but it would be hard on any trailing runner. ---
**Author:** ![Cardinal](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/cardinal/32/4000_2.png) [@Cardinal](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Cardinal)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 10:03am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/24 "2005-05-30T10:03:41Z")
Since this has been pretty much settled, I’d like to highjack this thread to ask: If a player hit a homerun and collapsed while rounding the bases, or refused to run, what would the ruling be? The official MLB rulebook says that the run scores when the home run is completed by the batter circling the bases, but leaves off after that, at least in that paragraph. ---
**Author:** ![Turek](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/turek/32/18782_2.png) [@Turek](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Turek)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 11:06am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/25 "2005-05-30T11:06:36Z")
> [@Cardinal](#): > > If a player hit a homerun and collapsed while rounding the bases, or refused to run, what would the ruling be? The official MLB rulebook says that the run scores when the home run is completed by the batter circling the bases, but leaves off after that, at least in that paragraph. Ok, so hypothetically, the runner (after hitting the ball out of the park in fair territory) is sitting on the ground between 1st and 2nd base, refusing to move? (perhaps he’s playing T-ball, and is in the middle of a timeout. 🙂 IANAU, but in this case, the umpire would put a new ball in play by throwing it to the pitcher. The pitcher would throw the ball to the second baseman, who would touch second base and appeal the play to the umpire. The umpire would then call the runner out and the run wouldn’t count. It would be the same situation if, while running the bases, the home-run-hitter missed stepping on second base. New ball, touch the base, appeal the play, runner declared out, no run scores. ---
**Author:** ![brianjedi](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/3be4f8/32.png) [@brianjedi](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/brianjedi)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 1:56pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/26 "2005-05-30T13:56:43Z")
> [@Turek](#): > > Ok, so hypothetically, the runner (after hitting the ball out of the park in fair territory) is sitting on the ground between 1st and 2nd base, refusing to move? (perhaps he’s playing T-ball, and is in the middle of a timeout. 🙂 > > IANAU, but in this case, the umpire would put a new ball in play by throwing it to the pitcher. The pitcher would throw the ball to the second baseman, who would touch second base and appeal the play to the umpire. The umpire would then call the runner out and the run wouldn’t count. It would be the same situation if, while running the bases, the home-run-hitter missed stepping on second base. New ball, touch the base, appeal the play, runner declared out, no run scores. Let’s say this is a Kirk Gibson-like situation, where the hitter is injured but still playing. He hits a homer, then goes down after rounding first with a blown hamstring. He obviously can’t continue rounding the bases, as he’s being carried off the field. Would his team be entitled to a pinch runner? ---
**Author:** ![RickJay](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/bb73d2/32.png) [@RickJay](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RickJay)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 2:43pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/27 "2005-05-30T14:43:45Z")
> [@asterion](#): > > I never saw anything complicated about the infield fly rule. Runners in a forceable position, less than two outs (right?), any pop fly in the infield is an automatic out. Keeps the defense from intentionally letting the ball drop then making the easy double play. The usual confusions are: 1. People seem to think the infield fly rule causes the ball to become dead. This is a phenomenally pervasive belief. It doesn’t. So some idiot strolls off the base, is promptly picked off, and begins howling that the ball was dead. Nope. 2. Or you call an infield fly and the shortstop camps under the ball with his feet on the grass, just outside the infield “arc.” Then people start howling that since the ball was caught in the “outfield,” it’s not an infield fly. Sorry, that’s not the rule. 3. Or people just don’t know the rule exists at all. **Cardinal:** Unfair though it may seem, the player is out. ---
**Author:** ![RM\_Mentock](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e274bd/32.png) [@RM\_Mentock](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RM_Mentock)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 3:42pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/28 "2005-05-30T15:42:56Z")
> [@bob fortuna](#): > > the connection is there and the rest is semantics. He’s OUT! OK, semantics then. What do you mean by “the connection”? That’s not a normal baseball term. > [@BobT](#): > > 1. Is it a tag play? If so, is the runner’s hand on nothing other than the fielder’s glove. He is not in contact with the base in any way? That’s unlikely. But if so, he’s out. > > I have never seen a fielder do that. You could imagine a fielder clothslining a runner with one arm, while catching the ball with the other. I’m not convinced that an activist jud^h^h^humpire wouldn’t do something. Maybe scold the runner for not avoiding the arm. [MLB rules](http://www.mlb.com/NASApp/mlb/mlb/official_info/official_rules/definition_terms_2.jsp) have these two entries: > [@](#): > > OBSTRUCTION is the act of a fielder who, while not in possession of the ball and not in the act of fielding the ball, impedes the progress of any runner. If a fielder is about to receive a thrown ball and if the ball is in flight directly toward and near enough to the fielder so he must occupy his position to receive the ball he may be considered “in the act of fielding a ball.” > [@](#): > > INTERFERENCE (b) Defensive interference is an act by a fielder which hinders or prevents a batter from hitting a pitch. [ ---
**Author:** ![Garfield226](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/g/9e8a1a/32.png) [@Garfield226](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Garfield226)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/29 "2005-05-30T16:20:28Z")
> [@rfgdxm](#): > > I can see the OP’s question being more than theoretical. Not all baseball is professional. While this issue coming up in pro ball is likely to happen rarely, if ever, I can easily imagine in amateur baseball some player who doesn’t grok the concept that the tag MUST be with the hand the ball is in. I can easily imagine in Little League a runner being called safe because the fielder didn’t know this. A variation of this happened. At least once, about 11 or 12 years ago when I was in Little League. Playing first base, the ball was hit sharply to my right. I dove/fell on it and realized no one was covering first. I crawled over there, scrambling as fast as I could. I wasn’t going to make it, but with the ball in my glove, I reached out my left hand (not my glove hand, I’m left handed) and touched the base before the runner got there. People were laughing, the runner was safe and I was confused. I figured if you can have the ball in your glove and touch the base with a foot, touching it with another appendage ought to be sufficient as well. ---
**Author:** ![mhendo](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/mhendo/32/3159_2.png) [@mhendo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/mhendo)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:31pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/30 "2005-05-30T16:31:32Z")
> [@Garfield226](#): > > A variation of this happened. At least once, about 11 or 12 years ago when I was in Little League. > > Playing first base, the ball was hit sharply to my right. I dove/fell on it and realized no one was covering first. I crawled over there, scrambling as fast as I could. I wasn’t going to make it, but with the ball in my glove, I reached out my left hand (not my glove hand, I’m left handed) and touched the base before the runner got there. People were laughing, the runner was safe and I was confused. > > I figured if you can have the ball in your glove and touch the base with a foot, touching it with another appendage ought to be sufficient as well. Well, i’m with you. I’m sure **RickJay** will be along soon to clear things up, but i thought that if it was a force (which it would have been, given that you were playing first base) the guy should have been out. As far as i could tell, **RickJay** ’s explanation, above, applied only to a tag in a non-force situation. ---
**Author:** ![DanBlather](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/d/f4b2a3/32.png) [@DanBlather](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/DanBlather)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:31pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/31 "2005-05-30T16:31:49Z")
Pardon the hijack. If a player is being intentionally walked, to what degree can they try and hit the ball. Is the batter’s box just on the side they are standing in or does it extend to both sides? Do they need to have both feet in the box or just one? I always wanted to see Bonds crack a HR when he is being walked. ---
**Author:** ![RM\_Mentock](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/e274bd/32.png) [@RM\_Mentock](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RM_Mentock)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:36pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/32 "2005-05-30T16:36:07Z")
> [@Garfield226](#): > > Playing first base, the ball was hit sharply to my right. I dove/fell on it and realized no one was covering first. I crawled over there, scrambling as fast as I could. I wasn’t going to make it, but with the ball in my glove, I reached out my left hand (not my glove hand, I’m left handed) and touched the base before the runner got there. People were laughing, the runner was safe and I was confused. > > I figured if you can have the ball in your glove and touch the base with a foot, touching it with another appendage ought to be sufficient as well. Maybe he beat the tag. If not, he should have been out. ---
**Author:** ![Enright3](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/enright3/32/2897_2.png) [@Enright3](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enright3)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:44pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/33 "2005-05-30T16:44:50Z")
> [@hightechburrito](#): > > The only way I can think of the runner being safe, is if the fielder was blocking the base while he was not making a play on the runner. If this happened, the umpire could call interference. That’s obstruction, not interference. With interference you get an out. ---
**Author:** ![Enright3](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/enright3/32/2897_2.png) [@Enright3](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enright3)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:50pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/34 "2005-05-30T16:50:09Z")
> [@Garfield226](#): > > I figured if you can have the ball in your glove and touch the base with a foot, touching it with another appendage ought to be sufficient as well. That’s correct. There is nothing magic about the foot. On a force play, any part of the body can touch a base for an out. E3 (who is also an ncaa umpire) ---
**Author:** ![Enright3](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/enright3/32/2897_2.png) [@Enright3](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enright3)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:52pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/35 "2005-05-30T16:52:47Z")
> [@DanBlather](#): > > Pardon the hijack. If a player is being intentionally walked, to what degree can they try and hit the ball. Is the batter’s box just on the side they are standing in or does it extend to both sides? Do they need to have both feet in the box or just one? I always wanted to see Bonds crack a HR when he is being walked. It might be different in MLB rules, but the general rule in youth and college is that you have to start with both feet within the lines of the batters’ box, if you hit the ball and either foot is completely out of the box you’re out, or if any part of a foot is touching home plate when you hit the ball you’re out. ---
**Author:** ![Enright3](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/enright3/32/2897_2.png) [@Enright3](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Enright3)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 4:55pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/36 "2005-05-30T16:55:51Z")
> [@DanBlather](#): > > Pardon the hijack. If a player is being intentionally walked, to what degree can they try and hit the ball. Is the batter’s box just on the side they are standing in or does it extend to both sides? Do they need to have both feet in the box or just one? I always wanted to see Bonds crack a HR when he is being walked. I didn’t answer all of your question. Yes the batters’ box is on one side only, and in some rules you can be called out for switching boxes while the pitcher is on the rubber. Besides do you really think you’d have time to jump over to the other box? ---
**Author:** ![nivlac](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/n/3bc359/32.png) [@nivlac](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/nivlac)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 5:03pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/37 "2005-05-30T17:03:22Z")
> [@DanBlather](#): > > Pardon the hijack. If a player is being intentionally walked, to what degree can they try and hit the ball. Is the batter’s box just on the side they are standing in or does it extend to both sides? Do they need to have both feet in the box or just one? I always wanted to see Bonds crack a HR when he is being walked. Let’s look at the official rules: **6.02** (a) The batter shall take his position in the batter’s box promptly when it is his time at bat. (b) The batter shall not leave his position in the batter’s box after the pitcher comes to Set Position, or starts his windup. **6.03** The batter’s legal position shall be with both feet within the batter’s box. To me, this says that a batter cannot jump outside the batter’s box to swing at a pitch, and must have both feet within the box. That’s why it’s quite rare to see a batter take a swing during an IBB. The pitch is invariably way outside the reach of the hitter. I recall reading that there have been occasions when the pitcher threw a ball too close to the plate during an intentional walk and the hitter did take a swing and got a hit. ---
**Author:** ![OldGuy](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/o/3bc359/32.png) [@OldGuy](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/OldGuy)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 5:11pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/38 "2005-05-30T17:11:13Z")
> [@brianjedi](#): > > Let’s say this is a Kirk Gibson-like situation, where the hitter is injured but still playing. He hits a homer, then goes down after rounding first with a blown hamstring. He obviously can’t continue rounding the bases, as he’s being carried off the field. Would his team be entitled to a pinch runner? Yes and the previous responder was incorrect. If the homerun (or ground-rule-double) ball is out-of-play, then you may substitute for the batter or any runner if they are injured (or I assume even if not – perhaps one guy on teh bench is one run away from breaking the runs scored record – though this seems like a pretty cheap thing to do). The substitute may then complete the home-run “run”. This more commonly happens with a hit by pitcher when the batter never gets to first base before being substituted for. ---
**Author:** ![RickJay](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/r/bb73d2/32.png) [@RickJay](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/RickJay)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 5:13pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/39 "2005-05-30T17:13:14Z")
> [@mhendo](#): > > Well, i’m with you. > > I’m sure **RickJay** will be along soon to clear things up, but i thought that if it was a force (which it would have been, given that you were playing first base) the guy should have been out. As far as i could tell, **RickJay** ’s explanation, above, applied only to a tag in a non-force situation. Correct. If it’s a FORCE play, the fielder can touch the base with any part of his body - hand, foot, your face, and if your jockstrap comes loose, your schwang. I wouldn’t recommend it though. Spikes hurt. Tagging the base on a force is defined as “the action of a fielder in touching a base \*with his body \* while holding the ball securely and firmly in his hand or glove.” (Section 2.00, Definitions.) So, any part of the body is suitable for tagging the base, provided you have control of the ball **in your hand or glove**. You could not, for instance, lose the ball in your pants (yes, it’s happened) and step on the base for an out. ---
**Author:** ![OldGuy](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/o/3bc359/32.png) [@OldGuy](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/OldGuy)\ **Post date:** [May 30, 2005, 5:14pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941/40 "2005-05-30T17:14:31Z")
> [@nivlac](#): > > **6.03** The batter’s legal position shall be with both feet within the batter’s box. > > To me, this says that a batter cannot jump outside the batter’s box to swing at a pitch, and must have both feet within the box. That’s why it’s quite rare to see a batter take a swing during an IBB. The pitch is invariably way outside the reach of the hitter. I recall reading that there have been occasions when the pitcher threw a ball too close to the plate during an intentional walk and the hitter did take a swing and got a hit. This is correct though “within” is interpreted to mean any portion of the foot touching the line. Many, many years ago Lou Boudreau (SS and manager for the Indians at the time) threw his bat at the ball when eh’d called a hit-and-run and the other team called a pitch-out. He hit the ball and got a hit through the infield as well. [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941.md?page=1) [Next page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/baseball-question/305941.md?page=3)