Bible question

Echoing Zev and CM’s comments about the difference between Ashkenazic Jews (mainly from Eastern Europe) and Sephardic Jews (mainly from the Mediterannean and Middle East). But it is my impression that the custom of not naming the child after a living relative arose much later than biblical times. However, I have no cite for this, only an impression.

I have.

There’s one interesting custom that some families have of using two names and reversing them each generation. So that the father might be named Moshe Nissim, and the son Nissim Moshe and the grandson Moshe Nissim etc.

There are such examples among non-Jews. Biladan ben Biladon springs to mind.

As for Jews, one of the celebrated early paytanim (poets) (author, among other things of the avoda said by nusach sefard on Yom Kippur) was named Yosi ben Yosi (Kohen Gadol). (There is some controversy as to precisely when he lived.) I don’t know if his father was alive at his birth, however.

(There is a previous thread about this subject floating around - perhaps I’ll do a search for it if I have time later)

Except that whenever the Mary that is from Bethany is mentioned she never is distinguished as being Mary Magdalene. Rather she’s described as being the sister of Martha and Lazarus. Likewise whenever Mary Magdalene is mentioned, no mention is made of Martha or Lazarus. The only connections are made rather haphazardly through such things as equating demons with prostitution and annointing the feet of Jesus with standing at the foot of the cross.