Apos: I’m not sure where I should start.
------"The dollar that the government spends is a dollar taken from someone (whether in the future, via deficit spending, or right now). "
Frankly, this isn’t clear to me. If there’s a shortage of aggregate demand in the current day, and the government succeeds in putting unused human and physical capacity to work, this represents a gain in wealth both currently and intertemporally.
If the short-term spending is financed with bonds, that may affect the relative consumption of net savers and net borrowers in the future, but I can’t see how it should magically shift consumption from the future back to the past.
During conditions of full employment, in contrast, extra governmental (noninvestment) spending financed by bonds will borrow from the future by tapping into national savings and reducing investment (purchases of machinery and equipment). So in that context, one can speak of shifting consumption from the future on to the present, via the investment mechanism.
Now usually, when one says, “Cite?”, one is implying a certain dubiousness. I don’t want to do that, but I really would like some context. Could you give me a reference to a paper that reflects your framework? Are you using an Auerbach/Kotlikoff framework or is this from a recent intermediate macro text? (Or both?) Just curious.
I know you can’t sketch out a model here (and if you did, I probably wouldn’t crank through it) but I’d like to get a sense of the provenance of your ideas.
------In fact, (and this is a simplified example, because it ignores the complications like those involved with the government taxing income from bonds) if you want, you can “pay off” your share of the debt anytime you want: just figure out what your share of the “debt” is, and then buy a government bond for that amount.
Now why would I want to do that? Why don’t I just encourage the government to borrow like crazy and leave future generations to pick up the bill. Implicitly, you’re giving us a model with infinitely lived agents. (Although admittedly I seem to recall some paper suggesting that even a very weak bequest motive will produce similar results.)
---------erl said: "I thought that the problem with the economy had everything to do with 9/11 fears and the recent corporate scandals, not the refund from, what, a year and a half ago? and some tax cut. "
Let Unca flowbark give your question a shot.
You can break aggregate spending down into consumption, investment and government spending. In contrast with past post-war recessions, consumption has held up pretty well: it is business investment (purchases of machinery, telecommunication equipment and the like) which has tanked and stayed tanked.
--------Apos: “If the tax cut hurt the economy, we can’t tell. It could have helped, but we can’t tell… we need some complex story that models reality well enough to be convincing. We don’t have that yet: maybe in 10 to 20 years, looking back at the data in hindsight.”
Hmph. Well, there are a number of large-scale econometric models (which are, at bottom, mostly based on intermediate Keynesian models) that do a fairly decent job of modeling the economy (except when something unprecedented happens, such as the 1974 oil shock but NOT the 1979 oil shock). For example, the average GDP forecast error in the 1983 DRI model was something under 1 percentage point. That’s not tiny, but it’s not huge either. Furthermore, it is my understanding that smaller models predict the big aggregates better (though they are unable to translate these forecasts into individual product demands, of course).
Now admittedly, W’s tax plan was pretty elaborate. Most of the cuts are backloaded, so that their effect on current consumption should be negligible, leaving the bulk of the impact to rest upon long-term interest rates. Quantifying that is probably tricky, since we don’t have previous experience with 8-10 year tax cut plans.
Finally, I must re-emphasize Sam’s point (which Apos will agree with, methinks). If you want to ask what the effect of policy X is, you have to compare what happened under policy X to what would have happened in the absence of policy X. In economic parlance you have to “pose the counterfactual”.
How do you figure out what would have happened? That’s where the econometric modeling comes in. Casual empiricism (never mind casual headline-watching) will only take you so far.
Cheers.
-flowbark