Caesar To Kaiser?

Beautifully put, Diogenes. I wrote my undergraduate thesis on this topic, and I couldn’t have summed it up better myself.

Similarly, since the middle ages, the French king was said to be “emperor in his kingdom” (the word “empire” wasn’t used, though), meaning like in the British case that he held ultimate authority. If I’m not mistaken, this sentence first appeared, quite early, in response to the HRE’s claim that he (the HRE) still had some sort of precedence/authority over European kings.

WOW!

You guys… You GUYS!:)…

“Guys” being used as a collective noun here!:wink:

Just gave me a very informative history/etymology lesson!

Had my Dad not brought us to the USA in 1960, I might not have needed to ask this question.

Danke Zusammen!

Der Quasi:)

Found a citation to back up my previous post, and which also confirms clairobscur’s post. It’s from Blackstone’s Commentaries on the Laws of England, Vol. I, pp. 234-235:

(I’ve tidied up the 18th century fonts and a few typos from scanning.)