Can a person effectively refuse to grant their spouse a divorce?

Cruelty can be mental or physical:

http://www.divorcenet.com/states/new_york/new_york_grounds_for_divorce

A favorite example of a crazy mental cruelty claim comes from an Ohio case that I encountered at the library one day. In Hunt v. Hunt, 63 Ohio App. 3d 178; 578 N.E.2d 498; 1989 Ohio App. LEXIS 2364, the Ohio Court of Appeals rejected an appeal from a denial of a divorce petition:

How do the courts view drug abuse by one of the spouses? Typically as a mental disorder, or as mental abuse?

http://www.brandeslaw.com/grounds_for_divorce/grounds.htm

Some jurisdictions simply inlcude substance abuse as one of the statutory grounds. http://www.divorcesource.com/info/divorcelawsgr/ohio.shtml
http://www.divorcesource.com/info/divorcelawsgr/arizona.shtml
http://www.divorcesource.com/NJ/ARTICLES/oflanagan2.html

I’m puzzled by this. What does that mean? When does not having sex have a physical effect on somebody? Does this mean if, for example, a man wanted to divorce his wife because he was dissatisfied with their sex life, he would have to say “My wife won’t have sex with me, and it’s causing me agonizing prostate pain as detailed in this deposition I got my my Uncle Cecil” or something to that effect? Or does it mean something else?

Wasn’t there a thread a month or so ago where somebody told of their experience in law school, where it was asserted during a mock trial or something that his “client” was automatically able to be divorced because he was a drug addict, and that the law therefore automatically considered him unable to have sexual relations? I searched, but didn’t see it.

What if the petitioner in a divorce case where the other person is resisting the divorce submitted evidence that he had committed adultery or was an alcoholic or had an incurable mental illness or something (in a state like NY)? IOW, can you rat yourself out as being “at fault” in order to get a divorce if the other person doesn’t want to give you one? What’s the down side to doing that? I’m assuming there is one or it would be easy enough to get the divorce regardless of your partner’s wishes.

Legislative Information - LBDC

You’ve pretty much got to be the plaintiff (the one seeking the divorce) and complaining about the defendant’s conduct.

By the way, the divorce by agreement bit is sort of new itself. I’m not sure of the precise timeline, but there was a time when the fact that both parties agreed they didn’t want to be together was not enough. Back then, couples would file collusive lawsuits, sometimes using staged photos, according to Friedman in A History of American Law Amazon.com

and see, http://www.lectlaw.com/files/fam15.htm

That’s pretty much the case here. There are very few grounds on which a spouse could contest a divorce. One would be to question whether the Family Court of Australia actually had jurisdiction. The other obvious one would be to argue that the spouses had not yet been separated for the twelve month period required to prove that the marriage had irretrievably broken down. And even if this were the case, the contesting spouse could only get the divorce application deferred, not blocked permanently.

Things change. I separated from my first wife in the late 60’s. She wouldn’t agree to divorce because she was catholic, but also because she was deluding herself that I would reconcile. About 5-6 years later she relented, but insisted I file and pay for everything, including her lawyer. She then almost backed out when she read the (standard) wording in the filing. I finally convinced her it was just legal jargon, not a personal attack, and was necessary if she wanted me to be the complaintant and pay the bill.
Finally it was done. A very expensive mistake indeed.

Paul in Saudi writes:

> Not quite the same thing, but I understand Ted Kennedy’s wife refuses to do
> whatever she must do to let the RC Church grant an annulment.

You’re thinking of Joseph Kennedy II, I suspect: