Can Congress force States to let ex-felons vote?

[Max_S]

@The_Other_Waldo_Pepper

I remember hearing somewhere that a valid reason to amend the Constitution would be “to withdraw certain subjects from the vicissitudes of political controversy, to place them beyond the reach of majorities and officials and establish them as legal principles to be applied by the courts.”

@Northern_Piper

No, because if Congress can give, Congress can take away. Passing amendments takes it away from Congress.

All of the aforementioned amendments rely on Congress for enforcement. If Congress repealed the relevant laws (i.e. 42 U.S.C. § 1983), and your state government decided to pass a law saying Black people no longer have the right to vote, guess what? The Black citizen wouldn’t have standing to sue.

If you think that’s unjust, see this old thread,

Amendment to provide federal jurisdiction when a state violates your federal rights

Amendment to provide federal jurisdiction when a state violates your federal rights I submit for the consideration of this board the following amendment to the United States Constitution: SECTION 1. The eleventh article of amendment to the Constitution of the United States is hereby repealed. SECTION 2. The Judicial power of the United States shall not be construed to extend to any suit in law or equity, commenced or prosecuted against one of the United States by Citizens of another State, un…

~Max