Can someone explain the history of Roe v. Wade?

The legal ramifications of a fetus as a person become interesting and convoluted (which is why it is not the situation.)

If a fetus is a person under the law then suppose Fred dies, and in his will leaves his estate to be split evenly between his wife and his children (he has 2 already, by a previous wife). But his wife is also pregnant with twins. But then they are stillborn. Does the wife (as immediate next of kin of the twins) get 3/5 of the estate? Or should she and the two living children get 1/3 each?

Exodus 21:22 deals with a similar legal matter - if two men strife and hit a woman causing her to miscarry, is it murder (life for life?) No, it’s a property crime to cause a fetus to miscarry, pay a fine, because miscarriages or still births happen all the time for assorted reasons, and it cannot be asserted definitely the fighters were the main cause of the miscarriage. Whereas if you hit a living breathing stand-alone human being and they die, it’s usually pretty easy to attribute cause and effect.

The point is - a child born alive and taking a breath is a simple and easy line to draw in the sand. The law hates ambiguous situations where it’s hard to tell if the situation is one or the other, so the fewer such situations, the better.

Do you have any cite for this “draw breath” standard as being part of the common law prior to Roe v. Wade? Nothing in Roe cites such a standard, either in concurrence or dissent.

I realize this is a zombie, but this comment perplexes me.

The Roe v Wade opinion starts out with sort of a dry discussion of jurisdiction and standing issues, but when you get to the part about the issue of abortion, it’s perfectly clear what Roe is based on. It discusses the history and progression of the law and how it arrived at the decision it did.

That’s not to say that people don’t disagree with Roe, but it’s not some especially dense legal opinion. If interested, people should read it.

Just skip the beginning legalese (and ignore the copious case citations). Start where it begins with:

The common law is not restricted to the United States. :wink:

@md-2000 is referrring to the English common law test, which was adopted by other Commonwealth countries, such as Canada. By that common law test, to be considered a human being, a fetus had to be born alive and separated from its mother. The “born alive” standard is met by the independent drawing of breath.

I’m on holiday today (Boxing Day observed), but next time I’m in my office I’ll see if I can dig up a cite for you.

Now, how that test was incorporated into the common law of the American states, I don’t know.

Another answer to the OP question is that Roe v. Wade built upon Griswold v. Connecticut, the decision that gave married people a constitutionally protected right to buy contraceptives. That was a precedent for granting reproductive freedom with privacy as part of the justification.

Also check out:

The Family Roe: An American Story by Joshua Prager

Griswold was one among many cases that addressed the notion of a constitutional right of privacy.

I claim no knowledge of the common law other than to quote Roe yet again.

I agree with this as a GQ answer. Also with @Moriarty. The Court had recognized privacy in marriage, child rearing, procreation and the like and believed that abortion was the same or a modest extension of those cases. Others very much disagree.