Charged with murder 30 years later

[straight_man]

@Velocity

Let’s say Person A shoots Person B in the hand, in a way that is clearly nonlethal. Under normal conditions, no one would die from such a hand wound. But Person B then purposefully, deliberately contaminates his hand gunshot wound with a particular type of bacteria in order to cause infection, sepsis and eventual death. Is Person A now guilty of homicide?

(Warning: IANAL) Causation is part of murder. If the victim himself induced sepsis, Person A could argue that the shooting did not cause death, ergo Person A did not commit a homicide.

[TBG]

@straight_man

(Warning: IANAL) Causation is part of murder. If the victim himself induced sepsis, Person A could argue that the shooting did not cause death, ergo Person A did not commit a homicide.

Sounds like an argument for his lawyer to make to the jury at trial, not a reason for the prosecution to not charge him in the first place. (IANAL either)

[Enola_Gay]

@Sahirrnee

I understand that point but even with the lesser charge the victim still had to take care of his wounds.
I feel though that the victim refused to follow doctors orders should be taken into account.

I follow your logic to some degree & I am likely biased since I am dealing with an elderly parent with bedsores , which are very hard to prevent, even when following drs orders.

But on second thought, I would agree that the victim’s refusal to follow drs orders (if that is indeed what happened) should be considered as a mitigating factor, but a homicide charge is still appropriate imo.