Conviction in Absentia

I’d be interested in the answers to your questions, but I’ve been trying to avoid hijacking the thread, Gfactor. My posts directly involve something in the Staff Report, even though it’s a small something.

I’m aware that’s your position. But I’m sure you’re aware that wasn’t what I was asking.

Let’s try again. In your post #14, you attempted to justify the way you had referred to Chapman by saying

I put it to you that this is false and your posts 17 and 19 are attempts to evade admitting it.

Really? A Mexican national kidnapping another Mexican national on US soil would not rate a one-year prison sentence in the US?

In the US, bail agents have a right to take fugitives into custody; the fugitive agress to this as part of his bail condition. So while there is no GENERAL right to “kidnap” on US soil, if the facts of this particular case were duplicated here, there would be no crime.

Oy vey.

When I wrote the phrase, “… Mexico raised the issue…” I was referring to Mexico’s notification to the United States. The phrase “raised the issue” is not one that would be used to refer to an arrest, but rather to the publication or notification of other parties ABOUT an issue.

In like manner, if you were arrested for felony assault, I would not say the Commonwealth of Virginia “raised the issue” of felony assault with you. But if you later applied for a gun permit, I might well say the Commonwealth of Virginia “raised the issue” of your felony arrest in connection with your application. “Raised the issue,” implies a later action predicated on some antecedent event.

So, no - when I said, “The article was drafted before Mexico raised the issue of Duane “Dog” Chapman’s conduct,” that was not false. Mexico had already arrested Chapman, yes, but they had not RAISED THE ISSUE by requesting Chapman be held for extradition.

Now, I certainly acknowledge that “raised the issue” is not a term noted for its rigorous precision. And I certainly understand that someone else might read it differently than I intended it. Nonetheless, considering the VERY SLIGHT CONNECTION this had to the report, I believed, and still do, that it was an appropriate commentary on Chapman’s Mexican hijinks.

And given that Chapman couldn’t be prosecuted here on the facts of the case, the double (or dual) criminality requirement seems a pretty good defense to extradition:

"Dual criminality refers to the characterization of the relator's criminal conduct insofar as it constitutes an offense under the law of the respective states . . . 'Double criminality' is in effect a reciprocity requirement which is intended to ensure each of the respective states that they (and the relator) can rely on corresponding treatment, and **no state shall use its processes to surrender a person for the conduct which it does not characterize as criminal**." 

United States v. Fernandez, 99 F. Supp. 2d 1358, 1369 (S.D. Fla., 1999), Citing United States v. Gallo-Chamorro, 48 F.3d 502, 507 (11th Cir. 1995) (Emphasis added.)

I’d always understood the dual criminality principle as relating generally to the statutory definition of the alleged offence in issue, not to the particular facts of the case. The comparison is between the offences as written, in this case the offence of kidnapping, which both countries have. How far the principle of double criminality includes defences such as lawful authority, with differing definitions of lawful authority, I’m not sure.

That’s part of what puzzles me, too. But it seems that in some cases, at least, they do look to the facts of the case:

The facts of the case are that Chapman was in México and broke Mexican law. There are no bounty hunters here. It is illegal for civilians to make arrests. Why should Chapman be afforded any special considerations?

Because the name ‘Chapman’ derives from the Old Norse Chuffmann, meaning “one who has trouble breathing,” and as a civilized nation, we must give a certain preference to the disabled.

Or, in the alternative, what the heck are you talking about? Who said Chapman should be given any special consideration?

Do Mexican bounty hunters have legal status in the US?

I don’t see why not. Although some states have bounty hunter registration or licensing requirements, others do not, and the right of a bail agent to secure a fugitive across state lines, anywhere in the country, is a matter of common law precedent.

I’d be interested in learning any specific authority to the contrary, but so far as I can see, there would be no legal bar to a Mexican bounty hunter operating in the US.

Aha: http://writ.news.findlaw.com/commentary/20030710_covey.html (explaining a previous court ruling that rejected my argument)

from the case:

Kear v. Hilton, 699 F.2d 181; 1983 U.S. App. LEXIS 30894 (4th Cir. 1983).

Dunno how I missed this (other than I’m sick (chicken pox)) the first few times I searched.

And now I have learned I was wrong in the above!

Are there even such a thing as Mexican bounty hunters? I’ve only heard about them in the US context.

No

How does this work with state crimes? I don’t claim to be an expert on bounty hunting laws in all 50 states, but I am pretty sure that some of them don’t allow it. If what the Dog did was legal in one state, but illegal in the next (assuming 1+ year of imprisonment), does that satisfy the treaty?

Thank you for clarifying your position. It is - at best - not at all obvious. It is the sort of thing that makes me approach your posts with suspicion.

The problem is that having clarified what you say you meant, your post #14 is now revealed not to have been a response to my post #13 at all - just to look like one. I said

and your response was a sham.

I know this is a side issue to the Staff Report, but like I said, it stuck in my craw. I thought it smacked of jingoism and winked at vigilantism. (I don’t much like either of them - although you won’t find my posts about winking at vigilantism by searching.) I still do and being fobbed off isn’t helping my craw any.

For extradition purposes, “Alleged conduct is considered criminal in this country if it would be unlawful under federal statutes, the law of the state where the accused is found, or the law of the preponderance of states.” In re Molnar, 202 F. Supp. 2d 782; 2002 U.S. Dist. LEXIS 22125 (N.D. Ill. 2002); DeSilva v. DiLeonardi, 125 F.3d 1110, 1112 (7th Cir. 1997); Brauch v. Raiche, 618 F.2d 843, 850 (1 Cir., 1980) (issue is whether “the acts upon which the [foreign] charges are based are proscribed by similar criminal provisions of federal law, New Hampshire law, or the law of the preponderance of the states.”).

I’m sorry you were confused, and I’m glad everything is all better insofar as your understanding. I hope your craw improves as time goes by as well.

If you want to leave it there, that’s fine Bricker. But I note that you haven’t attempted to rebut - or even baldly deny - my claim that your response was a sham.