# Could race have been real? **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [June 12, 2003, 10:58am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/could-race-have-been-real/181302 "2003-06-12T10:58:45Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 4\ **Page:** 2
**Author:** ![John\_Mace](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/john_mace/32/185_2.png) [@John\_Mace](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/John_Mace)\ **Post date:** [June 13, 2003, 2:39am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/could-race-have-been-real/181302/21 "2003-06-13T02:39:03Z")
> [@](#): > > \*Originally posted by hibernicus \* > \*\*Now wait a second. These people and I have a common ancestor, say 60,000 years ago. Let us suppose that this common ancestor spoke a language that is the common ancestor of their language and my language. Why can we deduce anything about the phonemic structure of this language from their present-day speech, rather than for example, mine? \*\* That’s a very good point. It’s definitely a hypothysis, and from what I’ve read it has as much to do with the ancient DNA markers in their genes as it does with their actualy language. As far as I can tell, it’s related to how much influence the rest of the language has absorbed from other languages. This is something that linguists can measure, and we do know that English, for example, has been heavily influenced by other languages. This does not seem to be much the case for the Khoisan languages. Additionally, cliques don’t appear to transfer **out** of the language, so it might be reasonable to assume that they were invented only once, and are “old”. But I think you are correct to be skeptical. That’s why I couched my original statement with the word “postulate.” [This article](http://www.theage.com.au/articles/2003/03/18/1047749768823.html) is an example of the reports in the popular press, and as you can see it doesn’t offer a lot of details. [This abstract](http://www.ipam.ucla.edu/programs/gpl2002/abstracts/gpl2002_jmountain_abstract.html) hints at more detail, but I haven’t seen the entire research paper. ---
**Author:** ![Cardinal](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/cardinal/32/4000_2.png) [@Cardinal](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Cardinal)\ **Post date:** [June 13, 2003, 6:52am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/could-race-have-been-real/181302/22 "2003-06-13T06:52:16Z")
> [@](#): > > Native American men do not have the ability to grow hair on their face. I am the victum of genitics becouse of that. I am 9/32 Native American (1/4 from my father, 1/32 from my Mom.) I have to deal with shaving or have a beard that rivals in amount of holes the apple that fell in vat of apple worms. Well, my family is about as European as it gets, and I have that too. It looks really lame when I forget to shave, unlike the guys who get the Homer Simpson look. At least it’s consistent for them. But you’re right, I’ve heard that certain groups are very much more likely to have things like that, to the point where it almost always happens. I’ve also heard of Asians having a flush when drinking, or being lactose intolerant. I’ve heard of these from Asians. Are these real? ---
**Author:** ![Blake](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/b/a9a28c/32.png) [@Blake](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Blake)\ **Post date:** [June 13, 2003, 7:25am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/could-race-have-been-real/181302/23 "2003-06-13T07:25:59Z")
They’re kind of real. East Asians are more likely to have a defective gene for acetaldehyde dehydrogenase. Hvaing this defective gene makes people flush when drinking. It also makes them cheap drunks, which can be a plus. However it isn’t restricted to east Asians. Nor do all east Asians have it, much less all Asians. So it’s kind of true, but it’s an overtatement to attribute it to Asians. The same is true of lactose intolerance, but htere it is even less true to apply the trait to Asians. Again it’s only broadly true of east Asians. Indian Hindus have of course been drinking milk for as long as Europeans, so the trait is no more common in parts of India than it is in Europe. And of course a lot of Europeans are also intolerant. Asians also aren’t the worst affected group. That distinction belongs to American Indians, who it appears were all intolerant between the influx of European genetics a few centuries ago. ---
**Author:** ![John\_Mace](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/john_mace/32/185_2.png) [@John\_Mace](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/John_Mace)\ **Post date:** [June 13, 2003, 12:54pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/could-race-have-been-real/181302/24 "2003-06-13T12:54:17Z")
Interesting side note. I was reading a book on genetics (can’t remember which one) in which the author pointed out the western bias in the term “lactose intolerance”. Since the mutation that made Europeans (and west Asians) lactose tolerant is relatively new, it’s actually the westerners who are the abnormal ones, and the condition should be referred to as “lactose tolerant” for westerners, and just plain nothing for the rest of mankind (which still outnumbers the “tolerant” group) Never thought about it that way. [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/could-race-have-been-real/181302.md?page=1)