He wasn’t second in line and allowed to keep the throne. The Bill of Rights provided that William and Mary were joint monarchs during their lifetimes.
Mary was born in England, so she was British.
So what would happen under Monaco’s system if a monarch died without any descendants at all (even adopted ones)?
Prince Phillip became a British citizen, and so, it is assumed, will the Duchess of Sussex.
If you want the story of a dysfunctional marriage, you should read about George IV and his wife. They were, to say the least, estranged when he was crowned. Supposedly she tried to get into the cathedral during the coronation, and had to be turned away.
It would get annexed by France. Since Monaco’s government is financed by the casinos, rather than income tax, Monaco’s people take a much greater interest in succession crises than in other countries.
Barring an act of parliament to the contrary Camilla will automatically become queen consort the moment Charles ascended the throne; whether she actually uses the title is a different story. Right now she’s legally just as much a Princess of Wakes as Diana was, she just uses one of her husband’s lesser titles instead.
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Wiki says the Monaco succession rules changed in 2002 to allow collateral descendants to rule. Now, it may be that the page is being sabotaged by desperate potential Monegasque heirs. But also, that may not be the case.
And even so, Charlotte would’ve been down 1 spot if she were older (2011 I think) due to gender. Now it’s gender-agnostic.
Still no filthy Papists, though their spouses are allowed.
Yeah, the Byzantines were more civilized. They only blinded and/or castrated potential rivals!
If events unfold so that Harry becomes king, then his wife will formally be “HM the Queen” - no personal name involved. Of course, she will often be referred to as Queen Meghan, and that wouldn’t be incorrect. But it’s not what will appear in official documents, the court circular, etc.
Should King Harry die, and be survived by his wife, she would most probably then become “HM Queen Meghan”, unless she chooses to use some other name, which is unlikely.
The story goes that upon the death of Napoleon, George IV was informed that his greatest enemy was dead and he replied, “is she, by God?”.
The only reason Elizabeth II’s mother was specifically styled “HM Queen Elizabeth, the Queen Mother” was because “HM Queen Elizabeth” would cause too much confusion with her daughter.
He was second in line behind Anne. He got the throne under the Bill of Rights because he was second in line behind Anne.
Mary was of the Teck family. The Tecks were German nobility.
As noted, that was the Ottoman practice. The Byzantine practice was to mutilate your brothers. One of the requirements to hold the throne was that you couldn’t have any physical disabilities. So if you wanted to eliminate your brother’s potential claim, you would have him blinded or castrated or cut off his nose and therefore render him ineligible. You’d then usually send him off a monastery to avoid awkward conversations around the dinner table.
Actually he got it because he was married to Mary, and she refused to take the throne except on terms acceptable to him, and he refused unless he could be co-sovereign with Mary. The he himself was relatively high in the succession may have made it easier for Parliament to accept his demands.
Mary was not of the Teck family. She was Mary Stuart, a daughter of James II, and her mother was Anne Hyde.
Mary of Teck was a completely different person who married George V of England and was queen consort from 1910 to 1936.
There was no House of Teck during Mary Stuart’s time. The last Duke of Teck died in 1439, and the title wasn’t revived until 1863, when it was awarded to the man who a few years later begat Princess Mary of Teck.
Who was talking about Mary Stuart? As I said, and as you were replying to,
Quote:
King George V’s wife, Queen Mary, was German.
And she was born at Kensington Palace to a British princess, and lived all but two years of her life in Britain. If having one German parent made her German, then she was also at least equally British.
No you have to be female to be Queen. That is why Prince phillip is not Queen Phillip.
Basically, they don’t call the consort King. But they do call the female consort Queen.
But the complication is that non-noble non-royal american divorcee Meghan… well thats a different case… there’s no precedent but they are moving to be less strict.
Two different “jobs” (reigning queen and consort) being called queen isn’t too weird. In English we use “Prince” for both the son of a king and a reigning leader of a principality, as in Monaco. A distinction is preserved in some languages, like German, which uses Prinz and Fürst.
There have been previous non-royal, non-noble and non-British consorts, although the combination of the three characteristics in one person is a first, I admit. But the only really novel aspect of Meghan Markle is that she’s a divorcee. If she were to become queen consort she would, I think, be the first divorced person do to so. Queen Catherine Parr has been twice married before she married Henry VIII, but both of her earlier marriages had been ended by death, not divorce.
But Meghan’s chances of her ever becoming consort are pretty small.
Wow, that’s quite Byzantine.
OB
How is one royal but not noble?
Wallis Simpson was not all three, but of course abdicated before marrying her.