# Countries where the language is the same word as the citizens

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/countries-where-the-language-is-the-same-word-as-the-citizens/918245>\
**Category:** Miscellaneous and Personal Stuff I Must Share\
**Created:** [August 16, 2020, 5:46am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/countries-where-the-language-is-the-same-word-as-the-citizens/918245 "2020-08-16T05:46:17Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
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**Author:** ![LSLGuy](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/lslguy/32/5813_2.png) [@LSLGuy](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/LSLGuy)\
**Post date:** [August 16, 2020, 4:58pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/countries-where-the-language-is-the-same-word-as-the-citizens/918245/10 "2020-08-16T16:58:18Z")

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Here is a recent thread on almost the same topic:

> [@Noun for language but not for speakers?](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/noun-for-language-but-not-for-speakers/916915/):
>
> Many nouns for languages also are the cultural/ethnic noun (loosely) for the speakers. For example : French: May refer to the language and Or the people English : may refer to the language or the people Spanish : may refer to the language or the people Hindi is a language spoken in India but there is no such thing as “Hindi people”. Are there other languages that fall into category ? I am guessing Yiddish and Aramaic are nouns for the language but not the people. Is that correct ?

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