Did Paul hijack Christianity?

(Continued from Part 1)

Nonsense. Where do you come up with these notions? Please cite your sources for that, all of which contradicts everything I know about those topics, some of which I’ve written above in this post (such as that there were untold numbers of apostles).

First, my statement had two qualified options, not just one. Please cite your compelling evidence that the Gospel’s Peter was the Cephas that Paul met in Jerusalem. You’d be the first, so please don’t keep your evidence from the rest of us!

As I just wrote, my statement had two qualified options, not just one.

(Your coding errors and lack of ellipses are making me work a lot harder to reply to you, btw.)
As I wrote above, disciples and apostles were two entirely different groups, and we only have evidence for the existence of quite a few of the latter.

No, he didn’t. Since the term “apostle” refers to anyone who preached the Christian message, and since Paul did a hell of a lot of that, he considered himself an apostle, and that he most emphatically was and he was right to so consider himself.

I didn’t recognize until now the kind of tactics you use in debates. You have a right to ask questions or ask for evidence, but you do not have the right to put answers in my mouth.

There are two possibilities: Either “the Twelve” were historical figures who matched the membership given in the Gospels or they were not and were instead part of a group who were simply called The Twelve, just as in Mormonism and other churches. I do not bear the burden of proof here, you do! Establish with compelling evidence that they were historical figures and I’ll acknowledge my mistake. [del]No? Didn’t think so[/del] I await your evidence.

Those accounts making it extremely evident that either Paul -OR- the others could have ended those fractious debates in a single swoop by quoting Jesus’ own words of those of his alleged disciples, yet neither side ever does so! That’s simply inexplicable and I’d say quite impossible given human nature and Jewish authoritarianism. It’s what’s called in philosophical terms a reductio ad absurdum: Your premise and arguments lead inevitably to crazy absurdities if they were true.

There is no credible evidence of their historical existence in the Gospels or the epistles or anywhere else! The Romans of that era were nearly as bureaucratic and stringent a bunch of careful record keepers as the Third Reich. While they didn’t force people to register their births and deaths and so forth, there were very powerful economic and civil incentives to do so, such that at least some of these people would be in Rome’s records. They were never found. I recognize that that doesn’t prove they didn’t exist, but the lack of such records fits the ethicist position far more strongly than they fit the historicist one.

Furthermore, history is replete with the biographies of biographers and followers of all kinds of historical religious figures, and due to the alleged fantastic nature of Christian origins we should have found at least one, but we haven’t!

Again, I do not bear the burden of proof here: You have to provide compelling evidence that Jesus and the others were historical figures, something that no one has yet accomplished. No one has to prove an existential negative!

Are you kidding?

Yikes! What a strawman you’ve got there! Don’t light a cigarette!

Please re-read the history of this debate in this thread. I’m going to hope I don’t have to repeat the bit about who bears the burden of proof here yet again. I was not even attempting to show “that Jesus didn’t exist”, because that’s an impossible task because no one can prove or show the non-existence of something! C’mon, now!

As for an argument based entirely on a house of cards – a house that has already fallen in the eyes of those careful researchers without an agenda and a bias – that’s the historicist position. 2000 years later and no one can point to a single scrap of credible, compelling evidence that Jesus ever existed as a historical figure (the debunking of which began in Germany well over two hundred years ago). What’s taking so long?

Thanks for the detailed reply – I don’t have much time now but I’ll respond tomorrow.

That’s not quite my view or most other mythicists. The most telling part is that there’s not a single reference to Jesus as the Gospels describe him ANYWHERE in Josephus’ Jewish War, where if Jesus had existed as a historical figure there would have been such a reference. This is damning stuff!

As Doherty puts it:

The Josephus fragment you bring out – “the brother of Jesus, (the one) called Christ [ton adelphon Iēsou tou legomenou Christou]…” is from his Antiquities of the Jews, Book 20 (9, 1 / 197-203). But while all still-extant manuscripts contain that or a very similar phrase, none of them come to us from before the 11’th century! As Erhman and others have pointed out, earlier copyists would routinely gather all the copies they could put their hands on and pick and choose among all the copies to favor those they liked down to sentence fragments. Their choices were usually constrained to choose the most popular fragments else they would not sell as many copies because potential buyers would look for their favorite passages before chucking over the change. The free market at work, ruining the accuracy of most things as usual. That practice would have ensured that this reference to Jesus would have been found in all later copies, but there is no reason to conclude that Josephus ever wrote that. Again, had he known of such an individual, even leaving out the miracles, Josephus would have known and written far more about him. This is yet another case where the forgers would have been better off not mucking with the text in the first place because an utterly not followed-up-on single reference stands out as a glaring forgery, hurting their case in the process. See what I wrote above concerning the 20 references in Josephus to other Jesus’ that follow a strict pattern versus the one that didn’t and so stands out as the forgery that it is.

Also, the phrase in question, “the brother of Jesus, (the one) called Christ” serves as an identification of James, but what good is an identification based on someone Josephus wrote nothing about? Some have argued that the utterly bogus forgery known as the Testimonium Flavianum that Dio speaks of some two books earlier would be enough to serve as a reference to the Jesus in question, but expert Josephus scholars insist he’d never done anything like that ever before in any genuine work! If he makes a reference to someone he hadn’t mentioned recently, he was smart enough to know that not everyone would have all portions of his works and so every time he made a distant reference he would repeat the identifying details again to re-orient the reader. Josephus was an excellent writer and would never have made such a rank amateur mistake!

All of this very much screams Christian apologetic forgery at work!

See Supplementary Article No. 16, JOSEPHUS ON THE ROCKS and Supplementary Article No. 10, JOSEPHUS UNBOUND: Reopening the Josephus Question
for more detailed rebuttals.

As for your references to “TF and Tacitus”, I’ll bet you don’t credit those, either! You seem far too knowledgeable and fair-minded for that, surely. 0 + 0 + 0 still adds up to 0 no matter how many different ways you try to do the math.

None that I’ve ever encountered. I don’t recall either Welles, Wells, Price, Mack, or Doherty ever claiming that. Can you cite your source, please?

I don’t follow that line of thinking at all. If there’s a good argument that something is an interpolation, how many of them should not be put forward to avoid some people capriciously referring to doing so as ad hoc?

I don’t have anything particularly enlightening to say, but here goes:

καὶ ὅτι ὤφθη Κηφᾷ εἶτα τοῖς δώδεκα

“And then he appeared to Cephas, and then to the twelve.”

ἔπειτα ὤφθη ἐπάνω πεντακοσίοις ἀδελφοῖς ἐφάπαξ ἐξ ὧν οἱ πλείους μένουσιν ἕως ἄρτι τινὲς δὲ καὶ ἐκοιμήθησαν

“After that he appeared to more than five hundred brothers at once, most of who remain to this day, but some are also asleep.”

ἔπειτα ὤφθη Ἰακώβῳ εἶτα τοῖς ἀποστόλοις πᾶσιν

“After that, he appeared to Jacob (James), then to all the apostles.”

ἔσχατον δὲ πάντων ὡσπερεὶ τῷ ἐκτρώματι ὤφθη κἀμοί

“Last of all, he appeared to me also, as one born prematurely [literally, “as an abortion,” “as one aborted”].”

I think it’s notable that he does refer to the five hundred as “bothers” (adelphoi), and that he appears to refer to “the apostles” separately from “the twelve.” I can’t come close to untangling this whole passage and finding what Paul was claiming happened historically. He clearly seemed to be talking to people who were already familiar with this formula and its characters.

There were those who stupidly repeated alleged (but extremely doubtful) Jewish mockery saying that, but it was of no account whatsoever. It was a funny foul-up that was centuries in the making that reached all the way into the medieval Jerusalem Talmud. No one knows for sure how that myth got started, but my personal take on it is that it started as a crass insulting joke once the myth of the virgin birth became widespread. To mock the virgin birth story, the joke’s punch line was that Mary/Miriam had sex with a particular Roman soldier and lied about it to her family. Since for some reason I don’t know a ridiculously large number of Roman soldiers were named Pandira / Pandera / Pantera / Panthera, the joke used one of those names in the punch line instead of a generic Roman soldier and so the bastard child became confused with an unknown figure in Jewish Scripture (the Tosefta) who was a bastard named Yeshua ben Pandera (no timeframe given). Someone – most likely a Jewish scoffer – read or heard of this bastard named Yeshua ben Pandera and since “Yeshua” is the Hebrew equivalent for “Jesus”, stupidly assumed Yeshua ben Pandera was one and the same with Yeshua ha-Notzri (Jesus the Nazarene).

So the whole Yeshua ben Pandera thing was nothing but an insulting punch line from the start and is definitely not a reference to a historical Yeshua ha-Notzri. Poor Jewish scriveners also made the same mistake in the Jerusalem Talmud, but the whole thing is just a sloppy mess of no salience or probity whatsoever.

Well, then, it’s a good thing I never claimed anything so stupid!

If you had been paying closer attention to this offshoot of this thread, you would have seen this:

You should have been paying attention rather than just collecting synonyms for “preposterous”. My study leads me to the preponderance of evidence that the origin of the mythical Jesus probably lies in the Righteous Teacher of the Qumran community. The sayings attributed to Jesus, such as that we had in the Q collection (Q for the German quelle, not Q for Qumran) had been being collected for possibly much longer still from itinerant Stoic and Cynic philosophers, sophists, teachers, and so forth. At some unknown point, the Righteous Teacher became associated with the name Yeshua (for what should be obvious reasons) and also with Q and whatever other collections of sayings were about in that world.

Viola! Jesus of Galilee is born without a biological father or mother – a mythical virgin birth!

Good thing I never argued anything so stupid then! One off-hand summation does not an argument make. I will repeat for perhaps the 10’th time: I never claimed that “Jesus didn’t really exist” outside of that one-sentence teaser summary. All I claimed in the whole is that the historicists have never provided even a single bit of credible, compelling evidence that he did exist. I do not bear any burden of proof, you do, so get to it!

Sheesh. That’s sophomoric pseudo-history, not history. There were churches all over the East and West extremely far beyond Jerusalem for people who had to walk there! I strongly suspect a fictional Jesus was associated with the Righteous Teacher and the Q and other sayings well before 1 CE, so the 70 CE destruction hardly matters in either regard.

Furthermore, Josephus and Seneca WOULD HAVE KNOWN AND WROTE OF HIM IF HE HAD LIVED! The fact that they did nothing of the kind totally sinks the historicist position, UNLESS you can cite solid, compelling evidence of Jesus’ historical existence, which no one yet has been able to do.

What’s surprising is how little we have, especially combined with absolutely zero credible, compelling evidence of Jesus’ historical existence.

I will repeat from my previous post: One off-hand summation does not an argument make. I will repeat for perhaps the 11’th time: I never claimed that “Jesus didn’t really exist” outside of that one-sentence teaser summary. All I claimed in the whole is that the historicists have never provided even a single bit of credible, compelling evidence that he did exist. I do not bear any burden of proof, you do, so get to it!

Clearly the TF is at least partially interpolated. I can’t say that the whole thing should definitely be discredited. The Arabic version (while still interpolated), is a point in favor of an original core.

I haven’t seen any serious arguments that Tacitus is interpolated, but the best argument against him as corroboration i that could have simply gotten his story from Christians (or those familiar with Christians) rather than an independent source.

I said, 'I believe," because I wasn’t positive, but it appears I might have mixed Doherty up with Price:
Apocryphal Apparitions:
1 Corinthians 15:3-11 as a Post-Pauline Interpolation
.

I’m also like 99% sure that Doherty think’s Paul’s eucharistic formula in 1 Corinthians 11 is interpolated, but I don’t have his book in front of me, and would have to do some searching to be sure.

If there’s a good argument, there’s a good argument, but I think the argument needs to be something better than that a passage just doesn’t fit a preferred theory. I’m not actually accusing anyone in particular of doing this, just stating that they need to be careful. I’ve seen amateurs just designate interpolations willy nilly to fit their own theses.

Nope! They weren’t prominent because they hadn’t heard anything about Jesus or Christianity either! How can you criticize something you’ve never heard of? The likely date for Mark’s completion was about 70 CE, but did you imagine he went down to the print shop to have hardcovers printed and distributed to the bottom drawers of all the hotels in the Empire in a year or two? I seem to recall that it hadn’t begun to see wider distribution until the next century at the earliest. And the apostles preaching could only reach a few people at a time and since they were already drowning in alleged “Messiahs” at the time, who besides Josephus and Seneca would get excited about just one more on the pile? Most likely, the overwhelming majority of people just chuckled about other people’s naiveté and went on with their lives. Why make a fuss about one more “Messiah”? They were 10 for a nickel at the local Walmart. They’d have happily washed windows if there were any.

No, it wouldn’t! Josephus in particular was a nut about keeping track of all the “Messiahs” for entertainment purposes and he would never have missed the NT Jesus had he ever lived anywhere in any Roman-controlled country. Seneca wouldn’t have missed him either. The preponderance of the evidence tells us that the explanation for the lack of contemporaneous accounts is that there was no historical Jesus to record anything about. Else Seneca and Josephus would have written of him.

Except for Paul: Only if they knew for certain that he never existed! They, like you, probably just assumed he once existed and had faith in it. It doesn’t even matter where they thought he might have existed, whether on earth or in heaven or anywhere in between. As regards Paul, he got everything he needed and wanted from his spiritual Christ and wouldn’t have needed to believe in a historical Jesus.

They did no such thing! They never knowingly invented Jesus! They just assumed or had faith that he once existed somewhere, possibly not even on earth but in a supernatural realm above the earth.

Why distant as opposed to recent? One key aspect of the Christian message is that the end of the world was thought to be immediately immanent. According to the later Gospels, it was supposed to come before some of those present had died, which means Jesus had to have recently lived.

First, what’s this [1] thing? Are you quoting from something? Please link us to it if so.

You’re assuming what is to be proved again. If you mean Paul knew plenty of people who lived during the time you happen to have faith that Jesus lived, then please say so. What’s so impossible is that Paul did indeed know quite a number of such people and yet there’s not a single reference to a historical Jesus or 12 historical disciples! That’s what’s relevant. Had he known of any such details, he most assuredly would have recorded them. But there is no such record.

Why? That’s certainly not what happened in the case of Jesus, as I’ve detailed previously. It was at least a century and probably more, not just 20 years!

The rest of your post reflects extremely poor knowledge of the historical details we do have.

Please show us your evidence that such couldn’t possibly have been deliberately planned by the author; that should be quite fascinating. Not just mind-reading, but reading the minds of the dead and unknown! Or perhaps you imagine that the Evangelists availed themselves of technology that produced the writings in the the cave of Caerbannog: "Here may be found the last words of Joseph of Arimathea. He who is valiant and pure of spirit may find the Holy Grail in the Castle of ‘uuggggggh’. Or maybe they used dictaphones?

Like I’ve said to youngsters who are surprised by things that look accidental in movies: “You do know that they carefully wrote, choreographed, acted, and edited those “mistakes” into the movie, right?”

sigh Please re-read this post and then this thread. Your assumptions are spectacularly unwise and unjust!

sigh In order to survive a Roman execution, you have to have lived first! I assure you that no mythical persons were executed by crucifixion.

I’m not familiar with such a claim. Would you elaborate?

That’s okay, since it’s not a rebuttal and I’m not trying to convince you of anything. And yes, that’s all, because you don’t get extra points for using a greater number of words when the crux of your argument, expressed in few words, fails to begin with.

You don’t get extra logic points for sarcasm either.

You’ve made a huge unfounded assumption about Paul and then drawn some conclusion from that. It fails miserably and fairly obviously.
Why should we assume that the things you just listed mattered to Paul? Perhaps he was more interested in the actual teachings of Christ and spreading those teachings rather than visiting any of those places, and, if that’s the case then your premise is just empty words based on a false assumption.

Again, this is merely an unfounded assumption. It’s merely one interpretation of the passages and not a particularly logical or compelling one.

More of the same. What you refer to as compelling logic is merely one possible interpretation for which you have no real weight.

IMO this is another example of your tendency to assume things are true without evidence. Why would we assume we have all of his writings? We have what we have, but is there any suggestion that we have them all? None I’ve ever seen. There is however suggestions we don’t.

Paul refers to a previous writing.

Another reference to a previous writing. {although Ephesians probably wasn’t written by Paul it’s attributed to him.}

reference to another letter. {Paul may not have written Colossians either.
It’s pretty reasonable to assume we don’t have all of Paul’s writings and unwise to assume we do.

I’ll finish tomorrow

I can’t agree. If they had heard claims of a historical Jesus who had allegedly lived in areas where they or family members of other trustworthy sources had dwelled at the appropriate times, some would have tried to check it out (although they would have accepted those source’s possibly untrustworthy or second-hand word on this, so it wouldn’t be good quality evidence, but they wouldn’t understand that as well as we do now). Either way, we’d almost certainly have heard about it.

Doherty and I contend that they didn’t check it out because very, very few ever heard about it. As you’ve written elsewhere, Christianity was a very small Jewish cult and the Jews were pretty isolated from the more cosmopolitan parts of their communities.

The most parsimonious explanation for the whole enchilada is simply that Jesus never existed as a historical figure and that the early preachers and followers didn’t know or care because they had faith. Why faith keeps getting left out of this I simply can’t understand except that it is ignored for the purposes of debate because it makes the historicist position look so much weaker.

ALL of them would satisfy my (and I suspect Price’s, Mack’s, and Doherty’s) definition of a historical Jesus, with the exception of the last part since I already believe the sources of Q and the other sayings and the Righteous Teacher are all composite sources of “Jesus”. Since we already believe that, we would not accept that last because it magically converts all us mythicists into historicists by verbal fiat! Surely that’s not reasonable or fair.

First, that’s in full agreement with my thesis that Paul didn’t visit that or other places because those myths hadn’t been fabricated yet.

But second, that same logic applies to everything else in my lists that Paul didn’t visit or write about! No fabricated myth, no reason to visit those places inserted into the myth, however real they were otherwise. Sherlock Holmes was said to live at 221B Baker St., but the current historical existence of 221B Baker St. is no evidence at all for the historical existence of Sherlock Holmes (although someone once tried to demolish my arguments by citing reports that a boat in Galilee was found from the Christian era! :p)

Again, that’s in full agreement with my thesis that Paul didn’t visit that or other places because those myths hadn’t been fabricated yet. That was my whole point.

If you’ve got an argument to make, please do so. Snide comments are easy to sling.

The audience for the Gospels would have been mostly Gentiles, living outside of Palestine, after the Jewish-Roman Wars and the destruction of Jerusalem, a minimum of 40 years after the alleged crucifixion for Mark, and 70 years later for John. They would be unlikely to even be Jews, much less Palestinian Jews. They would not be at all likely to have family members or acquaintances with any living memory of the events in question, and no way to research or verify them in any case. How would one be expected to go into a destroyed city and verify whether or not an obscure preacher/rabble rouser had been summarily executed a half century before? Why would they care enough to even try? The vast majority of the audience for the Gospels would not even have spoken the language of Judea, much less been able to embark on some kind of forensic investigation of the claims made about a particular crucified criminal who would have been one among hundreds. The audience for the gospels was far enough removed, temporally, geographically, culturally and lingusitically, from the historical events alleged within them, that it was virtually no possibility of refuation, and even if someone had objected to the story, no one in the fledgling Christian communities would have listened to them or cared in any case. They certainly would not have written down the objections and preserved them for posterity. Most of them couldn’t even read or write anyway.

You’re right that it’s not proof that Jesus didn’t exist as a historical person, but that’s not the argument I’ve been making. In earlier posts, the claim was made that Paul’s writings contained strong evidence of Jesus’ historical existence. In the course of several individual arguments against that premise, I’ve pointed out that had Paul – the first Christian writer there is and thus the closest in time to Jesus’ alleged lifetime – had Paul known of Gethsemane and Calvary and Mary and all the rest, he definitely would have sought them out during his trip to Jerusalem and wrote about what he found. The fact that he didn’t write about these things compellingly shows that he had no reason to look because he’d never heard of those places because they hadn’t been injected into the myth yet! Note again that if anyone would have known of them, Paul would have, since he wrote nearest the time of Jesus’ alleged life and would have heard stories from the “Pillars” if they had known them. So it’s a twofer, Paul didn’t know of them and neither did the Jerusalem apostles else he would have visited and wrote of what he found.

Those are awfully damning strikes against the historicist position, but I never claimed it refuted that position entirely.

Pray tell, genius, what it means and why my statement isn’t accurate. Are you – the guy with poor spelling who is incapable of getting the bbcode right – trying to capitalize on the trivial fact that I accidentally left off the word “the” there? This should be quite amusing.

Please try to debate this like a grownup.

I certainly agree that Paul was a judgmental bastard who was grossed out by sex and talk of sex and so sought to limit it as much as possible while still producing future Christians.

Nietzsche’s prescient theory – followed by later formal endorsement in psychology – of sublimation seems to be at work here. Paul seems to have sublimated his libido into his genius and his passion for crafting and spreading his gospel. Since he probably couldn’t recognize what he was doing to himself, he likely projected his sexual repression on others in his life and his teachings, thereby causing enormous damage to most future Christians.

At least that’s my guess.

Thanks for your work, Diogenes! You say you “don’t have anything particularly enlightening to say”, but then you refuted yourself and brought forth gold. It never occurred to me that this was probably a liturgical pronouncement. As such, logic really doesn’t enter into it. Else the whole “as one aborted” thing would get pretty weird!

MfM: “Again, I’d like an example of a mythical human who ostensibly lived within 20 years of the original account.”

Well, there should be some vaguely analogous example that you can point to. And while I reject Philip Nolan, the worship of John Frum pretty much nails it. The natives were pissed at the European missionaries, so they dreamed up the John Frum character - “Frum” means “Broom”, as in sweeping the colonists from the island.

In the late 1930s, Frum told them to throw off the yolk of the colonists and return to their traditional ways. It was only when the US army arrived that Frum became an American and the story took on the trappings of a cargo cult. It’s not difficult to imagine a believer writing a bio of Frum in the 1950s or 60s. Anyway, I think we can reject the “Ludicrous on its face” hypothesis, regarding the mythicism of JC. (I had also not digested the fact that mythicists weren’t claiming that Paul believed Jesus to have died in 30CE when I made that claim.)

Props to Blalron for the catch.

I guess it’s also possible that such separation might not even be necessary.

Circling back, Yogi Bera, Winston Churchill and Mark Twain have all had sayings ascribed to them which they never uttered. I’m agnostic on the question of whether Mark has anything useful to say about the historical Jesus. However, I think we can observe that The Book of Mark passed the laugh test when it was released to the world. If a substantial portion of believers rejected it outright we would have probably heard about it: as it was, it became the template for the following 2-3 gospels.