# Do angels have a gender (also, Hebrew gender questions) **URL:** \ **Category:** Factual Questions\ **Created:** [March 7, 2006, 6:00pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401 "2006-03-07T18:00:26Z")\ **Posts on this page:** 15\ **Page:** 3
**Author:** ![Gymnopithys](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/g/fbc32d/32.png) [@Gymnopithys](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Gymnopithys)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 1:34pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/41 "2006-03-09T13:34:32Z")
I read once that, in Arab traditions, angels are male homosexual beings… ---
**Author:** ![Doctor\_Jackson](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/doctor_jackson/32/32_2.png) [@Doctor\_Jackson](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Doctor_Jackson)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 1:49pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/42 "2006-03-09T13:49:27Z")
And I read once that there are angels in the outfield. So? I don’t think you’ll find any direct Biblical reference to the gender(s) of angels except in their incarnate state. Christian _tradition_ predominately describes angels as spiritual beings with no physical body, but with the ability to manifest themselves to us in any form God chooses. ---
**Author:** ![Malacandra](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/m/45deac/32.png) [@Malacandra](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Malacandra)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 2:00pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/43 "2006-03-09T14:00:14Z")
> [@Gymnopithys](#): > > I read once that, in Arab traditions, angels are male homosexual beings… I thought that was just Philip Pullman? 😛 ---
**Author:** ![spingears](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/ebca7d/32.png) [@spingears](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/spingears)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 3:23pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/44 "2006-03-09T15:23:53Z")
> [@Sampiro](#): > > Are angels as described in the Bible (specifically the OT) male or neuter, or does it vary? What’s the source for this also, please. Jesus said; " Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God. For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven. Matthew 22:29-30 IOW the angels are sexless or neuter beings. ---
**Author:** ![DocCathode](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/doccathode/32/18773_2.png) [@DocCathode](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/DocCathode)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 3:32pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/45 "2006-03-09T15:32:43Z")
The Apocryphal Book Of Enoch, and the traditions that led to its creation, state that angels are male. There are two lines in Genesis “The Nephilim were in the earth in those days.” and “The sons of heaven abandoned their duties and fell for the daughters of men.” Those two lines led to a tradition that G-d had set a group of angels called the Watchers or the Grigori to observe, guard and instruct humanity. The Watchers left their posts, quit serving G-d, and had a bunch of sex with human women. The offspring of these unions were Nephilim, who had great powers and were giants. OTOH Nephilim is used that one time and never again. This makes it very hard to know what the heck it means. “The sons of heaven” could refer to angels, but it could also refer to human scholars and priests. Leaders neglecting their duties to G-d and their people in order to satisfy their own desires is a running theme in the OT. ---
**Author:** ![Sampiro](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/2acd7d/32.png) [@Sampiro](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Sampiro)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 3:44pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/46 "2006-03-09T15:44:05Z")
> [@Malacandra](#): > > [And from Matthew 1:](http://www.hti.umich.edu/cgi/k/kjv/kjv-idx?type=DIV1&byte=4380943) > [24] Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: > [25] And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS. > > –which you’ll struggle to parse as “did not make the acquaintance of”. So later in Matthew when Jesus says > [@Jesus](#): > > All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son is he saying “don’t screw with me?” or what? ---
**Author:** ![Tevildo](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/b9bd4f/32.png) [@Tevildo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Tevildo)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 3:46pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/47 "2006-03-09T15:46:37Z")
> [@spingears](#): > > Jesus said; " Ye do err, not knowing the scriptures, nor the power of God. > > For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven. Matthew 22:29-30 > > IOW the angels are sexless or neuter beings. That’s not how Milton interprets it. 😉 ---
**Author:** ![Tevildo](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/b9bd4f/32.png) [@Tevildo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Tevildo)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 3:57pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/48 "2006-03-09T15:57:08Z")
> [@Sampiro](#): > > is he saying “don’t screw with me?” or what? [Euphemism](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euphemism) Most uses of “know” in the Bible are literal. Some are undoubtedly euphemistic. Some may be debatable, although I personally think it’s obvious which side of the line each example falls. Another Biblical euphemism for sex is “go in to”. For five points - which of these is euphemistic? 1 Chron 7:23 > [@](#): > > And when he went in to his wife, she conceived, and bare a son, and he called his name Beriah, because it went evil with his house. 2 Chron 29:18 > [@](#): > > Then they went in to Hezekiah the king, and said, We have cleansed all the house of the LORD, and the altar of burnt offering, with all the vessels thereof, and the shewbread table, with all the vessels thereof. ---
**Author:** ![Elendil\_s\_Heir](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/7cd45c/32.png) [@Elendil\_s\_Heir](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Elendil_s_Heir)\ **Post date:** [March 9, 2006, 8:15pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/49 "2006-03-09T20:15:07Z")
> [@AskNott](#): > > Then it’s safe to tell an angel, “Go f\_\_\_ yourself?” :eek: Well, maybe it’s anatomically possible. But I wouldn’t say it’s _safe_. ---
**Author:** ![Sampiro](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/s/2acd7d/32.png) [@Sampiro](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Sampiro)\ **Post date:** [March 10, 2006, 6:15pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/50 "2006-03-10T18:15:42Z")
> [@Tevildo](#): > > [Euphemism](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euphemism) > > Most uses of “know” in the Bible are literal. Some are undoubtedly euphemistic. Some may be debatable, although I personally think it’s obvious which side of the line each example falls. > > Another Biblical euphemism for sex is “go in to”. For five points - which of these is euphemistic? > > 1 Chron 7:23 > 2 Chron 29:18 Would you agree that in those instances the use of “go into” is clear, but in the case of “let us know them” and Sodom, it is less so? I don’t argue that know/yadda is used ephemistically, but personally (especially in light of what G\_d himself said the sin of Sodom was, I think that the literal meaning (“we want to know these strange looking men that a relative stranger has brought into our gated city [and thus potentially pose a major threat to our safety”) may have more validity than “we want to have sex with these strange looking men that etc etc.”. ---
**Author:** ![Excalibre](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/e/898d66/32.png) [@Excalibre](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Excalibre)\ **Post date:** [March 10, 2006, 9:30pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/51 "2006-03-10T21:30:52Z")
> [@chappachula](#): > > Hebrew is – like most languages (other than English)-- saturated with gender. Every noun is either masculine or feminine, and the adjectives and verbs change their last letters to match the nouns. Like _most_ languages? Cite for that, if you don’t mind? ---
**Author:** ![Tevildo](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/t/b9bd4f/32.png) [@Tevildo](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Tevildo)\ **Post date:** [March 10, 2006, 9:55pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/52 "2006-03-10T21:55:42Z")
> [@Sampiro](#): > > Would you agree that in those instances the use of “go into” is clear, but in the case of “let us know them” and Sodom, it is less so? To be honest, no, I wouldn’t, and neither do the editors of the NIV, who are quite happy to “translate” the examples we’ve looked at as “have sex with” and “rape”. However - and this is, I think, the important point - our disagreement on this specific issue really shouldn’t affect our overall interpretation of Genesis 19. I agree entirely with your view that “inhospitality” (in a very extreme sense) was the sin of Sodom, and that whether it was expressed as gay rape or merely violence towards strangers doesn’t make any significant difference. ---
**Author:** ![Kyla](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/eada6e/32.png) [@Kyla](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Kyla)\ **Post date:** [March 10, 2006, 10:53pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/53 "2006-03-10T22:53:17Z")
Hebrew has two words for “to know”, lehakir and lada’at. Lehakir is for knowing a _person_. Lada’at is for knowing a _fact_. The word used in this passage is derived from the latter instead of the former, and I _think_, that’s what gives it its sexual connotation. Disclaimer: I’m not by any means a Biblical Hebrew scholar. ---
**Author:** ![Johanna](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/johanna/32/8318_2.png) [@Johanna](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Johanna)\ **Post date:** [March 11, 2006, 1:34am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/54 "2006-03-11T01:34:46Z")
> [@Kyla](#): > > Lehakir is for knowing a _person_. Like ‘_arafa_ in Arabic or _connaître_ in French. > [@](#): > > Lada’at is for knowing a _fact_. Like ‘_alima_ in Arabic or _savoir_ in French. Thanks, **Kyla** , I learned something new about Hebrew today. How come you prefix the _le-_ when citing Hebrew verbs? The way I studied Hebrew, we just said the plain _qal_ forms like _hakir, da‘at_. > [@](#): > > The word used in this passage is derived from the latter instead of the former, and I _think_, that’s what gives it its sexual connotation. That’s a really interesting way to look at it. Like knowing for a “fact” just what are you packing in that loincloth? And do you know how to use it? ---
**Author:** ![Kyla](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/k/eada6e/32.png) [@Kyla](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Kyla)\ **Post date:** [March 11, 2006, 4:41pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401/55 "2006-03-11T16:41:01Z")
> [@Johanna](#): > > Like ‘_arafa_ in Arabic or _connaître_ in French. Like ‘_alima_ in Arabic or _savoir_ in French. Thanks, **Kyla** , I learned something new about Hebrew today. _Na’am_, and like ser and conocer in Spanish. > [@](#): > > How come you prefix the _le-_ when citing Hebrew verbs? The way I studied Hebrew, we just said the plain _qal_ forms like _hakir, da‘at_. Oh, I was just giving the infinitive, which includes the _le_ prefix. No deeper reason. > [@](#): > > That’s a really interesting way to look at it. Like knowing for a “fact” just what are you packing in that loincloth? And do you know how to use it? Just to clarify, I did not make up this theory on the translation. I’ve definitely read it/heard it somewhere else. I just can’t remember where. [Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/do-angels-have-a-gender-also-hebrew-gender-questions/347401.md?page=2)