Of course there is a point in debating whether they are right or wrong. Why wouldn’t there be?
What are they? How can we be certain of their correctness?
I don’t see why it is impossible for me to judge them without contradiction.[ol][li] Moral judgements must be made from within a moral framework[/li][li] There is no way to tell if one moral system is better than another without acting from within a moral system.[/li][li] I act within my moral system to judge other moral systems[/ol]Where is the contradiction?[/li][quote]
It seems to me that you’re saying (a) that you can condemn the morality of other cultures, and (b) that their morality is no better or worse than your own.
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(b) just barely misses it. Their morality is better or worse than my own, but that judgement is only made from within a moral frame. There is no “bottoming out” or ceiling to reach, no ultimate moral system from which the final standard of correctness can come. “Better or worse moral choices” only have meaning from within a moral system… some might call that begging the question. It assumes that there is some highest morality from which to make such a judgement.
Oh, I can see it, but only when I consider the “yet” phrase as acting from within a moral system. The point is that in order to make a judgement about whether an action, event, person, or system is in some way bad or wrong can only be made from within a moral system. This itself isn’t what you seem to be disagreeing with, however. The only thing left is that there is no method of being certain which moral system is more correct because that measure can only be performed from within a moral system, and so (almost literally) demands tautology or paradox (tautology in that the system declares itself good, or paradox in that each system calls the other bad and both answers are considered to be simultaneously correct). In fact, that last parenthetical note, now that I think about it, might be your sticking point.
Consider that I judge France’s moral system (and consider that such a system exists) to be bad. At the same time, France considers America’s moral system (that exists by hypothetical supposition) to be bad. Here’s the key: there is no sense in which both of these pronouncements can be made simultaneously… we cannot objectively look at both responses without being in a third moral system, but then that demands a question: why is this third moral system fit to judge the other two?
Do you see that sort of infinite recursion when I say it like that?
A difficult question if taken too deeply. But I would pretty much say yes, nothing prevents us from judging others for any reason except a moral element which strictly forbids it. I have no such moral element. I think such an element would be particularly crippling to the system itself and render it effectively useless.