Do you really own property(land)?

Chicago Title and Trust, when examining title to real estate, never makes the determination that a plat has conformed to the Plat Act. One or more technical details may have been omitted (a seal missing, perhaps). Vacation of a road, especially one created before the enactment of the Plat Act, entails certain difficulties, as follows.

When a lot is conveyed, also usually conveyed is “and all interest in adjoining alleys and streets.” So all subsequent purchasers acquire interest in half of the adjoining alley and/or street. No problem here. Upon vacation, whether or not the municipality had fee simple or merely an easement, the adjoining owners would acquire title (or have title without the easement) to their respective portions. The problems come in when some deeds contain that language and some don’t. If a deed does not or does not contain words indicating conveyance of all interest in the adjoining street (“and all appurtenances thereunto belonging” probably would suffice), then the seller technically retains title to the street, if it was a common law plat. Sometimes the developer never conveyed all interest in the street. Hence, the heirs or devisees of that developer or seller will have title, and upon vacation, they technically would have title without the easement, creating a cloud on the title of the adjoining lot.

Of course, those are technicalities. In actually, such heirs or devisees know nothing of this. Nonetheless, the safe method is to bring a quiet title suit and clean up the title.

[b)Random **, in your example, two adjoining farms sign an agreement for a road, the Plat Act is not applicable. The Plat Act applies only to plats, and usually plats of subdivisions. That would normally be a private road and I don’t know how the municipality invoked itself into the situation by maintaining it. The municipality normally would not do that.

It would be a 50-50 split, unless the agreement provided otherwise. And who now owns the land depends upon whether deeds in the chain of title included all interest in the road. Once one deed does not, that grantor has retained title, and his or her heirs at law or devisees would have title.

[quote]
None completely resolve it, except perhaps in those situations where the old road dedication strictly complies with the Plat Act and the municipality vacates the road in an ordinace which clearly specifies who gets it.) In your factual situation, there was no dedication, but merely an agreement. But let’s assume there was a plat of dedication which conformed to the Plat Act and the municipality acquired title. Upon a vacation ordinance and the closing of the street for at least six months (to complete the vacation), title automatically reverts to the adjoining owners (or to any owner who had not conveyed his interest in the street). The municipality does not specify who gets it. Of course the municipality can do so if it had the title, but I’m not aware that it usually does so. If you have a cite or link contra, I’d like to see it.

Point taken regarding the Plat Act. In New York, where I got my education in land titles, virtually all rights-of-way are held by easement rather than title, though there are titled roads, largely serving to confuse the issue. In any case, various New York roads are owned by the State, the counties, and the municipalities into which the counties are divided (cities, towns (i.e., what would be townships in most areas), and villages). When the State determines it no longer has need of a former state highway, it abandons it to the county. When the county decides it no longer finds a road of value to the county highway system, it abandons it to the local municipality. Only when the town (or rarely the village or city) abandons a dedicated road as no longer useful – which can only be done when there is no permanent residence or year-round business on it – does it pass to private holders. The laws on this are interesting – it will pass to the adjacent landowners along the center line of the right-of-way, unless the act of abandonment calls for its sale (e.g., a “paper street” that ends in waterfront property may net the community significant income if sold rather than simply abandoned). Whoever may have been involved in the dedication of the road and what their title might be does not enter into it – it’s deemed to be the property of the adjacent property owners, up to the midline of the ROW as appropriate. However, any property owner dependent on the road-to-be-abandoned for access to his property may reserve an easement, which means that property owners between him and the surviving public roads must permit him access across their lands along the abandoned right-of-way. They are entitled to gate it, and even lock the gate provided they give him a key, to prevent public use of it, but may not block his access.

When a bank or mortgage or trust company has interest in land through a financing mechanism, title may get interesting. From my experience, it works like this: When title is subject to a mortgage lien, title vests in the mortgagor (the person buying the land, who gave a mortgage on it to the bank to get the loan the mortgage secures). The mortgagee (bank or finance company) has a lien on the property, which may not be sold without discharging the loan that the mortgage secures. In the event of non-payment or other rare occurrences, the mortgagee can foreclose, meaning that they can force the property to be sold to discharge the loan, any sums above what is owed being paid to the landowner.

However, when land is held under deed of trust, something quite different occurs. Say Mr. and Mrs. Smith buy a house from Mr. Sanders, financed by the Shylock National Bank. The paperwork is completed, title search and all the other necessary paraphenalia are in place, and they close. Up pops Tex Holdem, Esq. (I wanted to use Dewey, Cheathem, & Howe, Perelman’s attorneys, but our own Dewey preempted the name.) Sanders signs off on the property, and a Deed of Trust is written – but not to the Smiths. Rather, they are the beneficiaries of a trust created by the deed, to which Tex and the bank are also parties. The agreement reads that Tex holds the property as trustee for the term of the deed of trust, or a shorter period as specified by clauses in the deed. Tex will sell the property to pay off the loan advanced by the Shylock National Bank if the Smiths default on their payments, there being specific terms under which they may correct that default, and he will pay them any sum above the value of the loan. If the Smiths pay off the loan, either at the end of the term of the deed of trust or early if that is permitted by its terms, then he will sign over clear title to them. But Tex holds title to the Smiths’ home, not in his own right but as trustee, until that loan is discharged one way or another.

Well, that’s interesting. You mean that the Smiths have no right of redemption upon default? Looks like a cunning way to deprive the Smiths of their right of redemption.

My experience in real estate has been primarily confined to Illinois. Illinois also has an animal called a “deed of trust” (or “trust deed”), but it is a little different. Like NY, a TD does convey title in Illinois whereas a mortgage does not. However, that is a mere technicality in Illinois since the trustor (or mortgagor, if you will) retains the right of redemption and there must be a judicial decree foreclosing the property. TDs in Illinois are primarily used for commercial properties wherein the funds to develop the property are secured by various bonds owned by different bond owners, and a bank or financial institute is the trustee, holding technical title for the benefit of the actual lenders. Upon satisfaction of the loan, the trustee must execute a release deed, releasing to the trustor all of the trustee’s right, title, and interest in the propery. Whereas, in a mortgage, the mortgagee signs merely a “satisfaction piece.”

IIRC, in some states the redemption procedures differ between mortgages and TDs, the latter having a shorter period.

A deed of trust, of course, must not be confused with a deed in trust, which is an entirely different animal.

Disagree, at least partly, on both of your points. The Plat Act is not limited to developer type subdivisions. I’ve seen several recorded road dedications, prepared only for that purpose, which have a drawing and legal description, and otherwise comply (or at least attempt to comply) with the Plat Act.

Road dedications are supposed to have a grantee. Yeah, sometimes that’s omitted, or the dedication is “to the public” but, even then, a govermental body steps in to maintain it, usually. That can be the county,the township, the state, or even the local municipality (if there is one).

Not necessarily. That’s by far the most typical result, but not universal.

Common law or statutory dedication? If it’s statutory, I disagree, due to the road vacation statute which was enacted, in part, to avoid the situation where 98 heirs each own 1/98th of a strip of land 30 feet wide and a mile long. If it’s a common law dedication, I generally agree, but even then it’s trickier than it first seems. If the legal in the deed clearly fails to include the land under the road and shows an intent by the grantor to retain that interest, then we have the 98 heirs scenario. But very often, that’s not clear from the deed language, and courts do everything possible to construe the deed to avoid that result. What if the deed says that the north boundry of the land conveyed is Hassell Road, and the grantor was the original dedicator of the whole thing? Is the north boundary of the conveyed land the midline of the road? The south edge? The north edge? Is it really reasonable to interpret that deed as retaining the reversionary rights in the road land, especially if the grantor is keeping no other land in the area?

I’m not sure I completely follow this part (except the request for a cite, of course).
I had a case where this issue was important that I tried about 7-8 years ago in front of the Cook County Chancery judge that was generally regarded as the dean of equitable issues at the time. (I’ve heard the current chief judge of the Chancery division say this.) He wrestled with these issues for quite a while. Not so much whether the dedicators succeeding in complying with the plat act. They clearly made the attempt, but failed to adequately comply. There was enough to make it a common law dedication, though. The tough questions were the construction of the legals in a couple intervening deeds, and whether one of the present day adjoining landowners had any claim, even though none of the road was ever in his chain of title. (The municipality’s ordinance vacating the road was silent on who got it after vacations.)

I’ll see if I can dig up the briefs and the CT&T article. The Illinois leading case on some of these issues was Prall, which went into the history of why the various relevant statutes were enacted.

Here’s CTIC article, most of which I agree with.

http://www.cmetro.ctic.com/TitleIssues/v10n1.pdf

I disagree (and if I read your post correctly, you would share this disagreement) with the authors’ conclusion that the present-day adjoining landowners take upon municipal vacation, even if the original road dedication was conly an easement under common law. The 98 heirs scenario is not as dead as the author states.

I also disagree that it’s automatically a 50-50 split. (and here, you appear to be aligned with the authors). What if its a common law dedication and all of it came from the predecessor in title of the south adjoining lawowner? What if it was dedicated 60-40? If it was a common law dedication and (accordingly) the fee was retained by the dedicator(s), a governmental hand-off of the vacated road to someone other than the successors in title of the grantors is an uncompensated taking.

That was misleading on one point. This is not the CTIC article I mentioned earlier. That one was more fully thought out, and about 25 years older. I think I have it in a file somewhere, but I’m not at the office right now.
Prall is Prall v. Burckhartt, 299 Ill. 19 (1921), a free copy of which I cannot find online.

I ought to clarify – while there may very well be Deeds of Trust in New York realty, I’m not familiar with any. The information I provided on them was from my present state-of-residence, North Carolina. Now, IANAL, nor am I a realtor, but I did hold a job requiring work with deeds of trust for several months, and I read what I process. I did not see any provision for a right of redemption in them – in fact, there was a clause I think totally unfair in many of them, providing that the bank could move to cause a default if it believed that its debtors were likely to go into default! There may very well be a legal right of redemption in state law and assumed as an element of the DoT, but it certainly was not spelled out in the DoT, even though remedies for a lot of hypothetical situations were dealt with in explicit clauses.

Doesn’t have to be in the instrument, and usually is not.

Random:

In the case cited, using the Illinois statute, of which I was unaware (when was it enacted - 1965?) the court upheld the constitutionality of the statute upon equal protection grounds but did not mention the taking of property without due compensation. The CT&T article discussed this but with no conclusion. Assuming all the conveyances included the street and the street was a common law dedication, I don’t see how the adjoining owner can lose his title without compensation.

I agree with the last sentence, as I noted above. I also agree with the prior sentences in this paragraph. I did not think of that.

I agree, but in your original example you said that only an agreement was entered into.

I’ll see if I can find Pratt on line.

My mistake. The case was Prall. I could only find free resources to 1996. I did belong to Lexis, but since I retired I no longer have the privilege of searching that site.

[QUOTE=barbitu8]
I agree, but in your original example you said that only an agreement was entered into.

[QUOTE]

Yeah, I could have been clearer on that point.

It has been a dream of mine to never own my house, and so far, I have done well. It is like God and religion, some people need that stuff. If they need it, that is fine. As an atheist, I don’t need it.

If someone wants to “own their house”, that’s fine. Let them have it.
The ones I have a problem, are those that are not merely wishing to own a house, but are into Real Estate dealing and wheeling. Those who buy a place to see its value go up and then sell and buy another one. There are people who make a living out of this practice. Their motive is not merely to “own” their home, but to manipulate property values with the net effect of pushing up the prices of houses – thus pushing up the rents for those who do not wish to own any property at all.

I have a problem with people who, rather than working for a living, merely buy and sell Real Estate, making their living out of increases in the price of Real Estate. They are generally Ayn Rand subscribers who see the world as a dog-eat-dog – survival of the fittest. And they justify their behavior as simply “following the laws of supply-and-demand”.

In their greed for easy money, what these “Real Estate Mafiosi” do not realize is that the very people they’d truly like to have as their friends, are leaving the US for Canada and elsewhere. So, keep on pushing the prices of Real Estate up to make a buck. Drive away the nice people who cannot afford to pay the rent as a direct result of your practice. We’ll see who will win at the end. May you end up living in the land you created.

???, who are these people, are you refering to people who buy handymans specials and fix them up to sell them at a profit? If so what’s wrong w/ that? They are working, building up the house.

There are also people who specualte that a certain area will increase in value, they buy a house from someone who is willing to sell. If after they buy that house they sit on it for a year, while value goes up and they sell it, I don’t see how they made the value go up

You don’t see it because real estate is one of the few areas of American financial life left where the price is completely market-driven. You don’t haggle at the grocery or department store, but you do haggle in real estate.

The speculators don’t make the value go up, they simply buy in area where, one year later, the laws of supply and demand have created an atmosphere where people are willing to pay more for that parcel than they were a year previously. There’s great risk involved, but then again it IS called “speculation”. They gamble the purchase of the property on the idea that it will be worth more in the relatively short term.

Besides the fact that you can haggle in some department stores, what’s the difference between investing in real estate and investing in stocks? It’s an investment, for cripe’s sake. Speculation, investment. Real estate does not always rise in value. Around 1980 it took a deep nosedive and people who had invested then lost their shirts, unless they were able to hold on, just as in stocks. Some may say it’s “easy money,” but there’s always a risk, just as in any investment.