Does income inequality in one nation have global consequences, or is it localized

L’Ouverture was enslaved for his first 33 years and worked as a coachman after that, I’m not sure if that qualifies as middle class. Lower middle class at best.

I’m not sure social mobility is always a better indicator (at least for what I care about) than inequality. I don’t want anyone to be living in extreme deprivation, whether or not their deprivation is the result of downward mobility or whether their children might be upwardly mobile or whatever. India is better off on the whole than they used to be (don’t know enough about Pakistan to say), but I have some very serious problems with the kind of rises in inequality that they’ve experienced.

That being said, I’d be interested to see more on what you were saying about the Gini index failing for middle income countries. What is it about middle income countries specifically that makes them a bad indicator?

(I guess India qualifies as a middle income country today: I wouldn’t have put it in that box 20 years ago).

That’s what I said too, so I don’t know what’s so dubious about it. What they weren’t, was starving peasants.

You’re the first person to bring up the American Civil War. I was talking about the *English *one.

Yes, which is why I said it was mostly peasants doing the dying. I’m including factory proles under that peasant umbrella.