# Does it violate free will if the person was never given the desire to do something in the first place?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-it-violate-free-will-if-the-person-was-never-given-the-desire-to-do-something-in-the-first-place/1025339>\
**Category:** Great Debates\
**Created:** [December 2, 2025, 10:09pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-it-violate-free-will-if-the-person-was-never-given-the-desire-to-do-something-in-the-first-place/1025339 "2025-12-02T22:09:00Z")\
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**Author:** ![Mijin](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/mijin/32/9369_2.png) [@Mijin](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Mijin)\
**Post date:** [January 17, 2026, 4:28pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-it-violate-free-will-if-the-person-was-never-given-the-desire-to-do-something-in-the-first-place/1025339/288 "2026-01-17T16:28:03Z")

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Thanks for the clarity.

Yeah, I think it’s an absurd position. Remember, we are not talking about _proof_, merely whether the existence of seemingly limitless suffering would give someone _any reason whatsoever_ to doubt that an all-powerful and _maximally loving_ / benevolent god exists.  
You’ve bit the bullet and said “no”. Fair enough, I respect that.

I wonder whether you treat other claims this way? If X locks me in a dungeon and unleashes vicious dogs and a hail of knives at me, do I have any reason to doubt that X is a kind host? Logically speaking, X _could have_ reasons.

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