Does the 14th amendment really give citizenship to "anchor babies"

U.S. v. Wong Kim Ark, 169 U.S. 649 (1898) was a case involving an ethnically Chinese man born in San Francisco to non-citizen Chinese laborers who left the US to visit China on several occasions. Previously, Mr. Ark had been let in by saying he was a citizen but on one occasion, the customs official refused to accept this explanation and detained him.

To quote from the Court’s decision:

Yes. Basically, the interpretation of the 14th Amendment comes down to the interpretation of one phrase. I’ve underlined it here:

So, the debate is: is there one or are there two criteria for citizenship at birth? Is it enough that persons be “born or naturalized in the US”? Or do they also have to be “subject to the jurisdiction thereof”, as well?

The 14th Amendment was proposed to ensure that Black Americans, who had just been emancipated, would be guaranteed citizenship by the states. Upon its introduction in 1866, Michigan Senator Jacob Howard spelled out the intent of his proposed amendment:

The proposal even excluded Native Americans, whose citizenship rights were handled in a later bill.

Here is a current bill on the subject:

http://thomas.loc.gov/cgi-bin/query/z?c109:H.R.698:

And some cites discussing the issue:

http://www.cairco.org/articles/art2002sep11.html

http://www.dailybulletin.com/search/ci_3306507

http://www.usbc.org/profiles/2005/spr/ancor.htm

I found this one particulalry illuminating:

http://www.declaration.net/news.asp?docID=5323&y=2006

An excerpt:

I thought “under the juristriction of” also means that you are “subject to the laws of”? So if you wanted to claim that the children of foreign born nationals were not “under the juristriction of”, surely you are also saying the US has no legal right to impose any laws on them? So if they wanted to, say, murder someone, they’d be okay?!

I am pretty sure that I, as a foreign national on a temporary visa, am under the juristriction of the United States. Or am I wrong? It would certainly put the illegal immigration debate to bed!

Nevermind, I didn’t see the “juristriction = allegiance” article. Although I don’t know how accurate that is.

And to irritate everyone with three posts in a row …

“All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside.”

“Born” and “naturalized” are not prioritized, they are equal concepts in the above sentence. So if we assume “juristriction = allegience”: If I applied for citizenship (in other words, was naturalized) then I would never be a citizen because I was not under the jurisdiction of the United States (as a citizen of South Africa it is unclear how you could say my allegience was solely with the US). So naturalization is impossible, it is logically inconsistent!

If you were to argue that I was under the juristriction of the US after naturalization, then the same argument applies to people after they were born. How are you determining “allegience”? What is the legal intepretation of this?

Logically, I just don’t see how this sentence can mean anything but people who are born or naturalized inside the United States are citizens.

Does anyone seriously maintain that a child born in the US and living there is not “subject to the jurisdiction thereof”? A case could certainly be made that a child born in the US loses its citizenship when it leaves the country, but the same case could be made for any citizen who takes up foreign residence (me, for example). A strict constructionist should ignore what some senator from Michigan is alleged to have said. He didn’t get it into the wording of the amendment. Of course, strict constructionist tend to abandon their principles when they don’t like the outcome (cf. the recent California marijuana case).

If the person is a US citizen at the moment of birth (which the strict wording suggests) then they will likely remain so. SCOTUS has consistently taken the attitude that there are no “classes” of citizens (exception made for election to president) and thrown out various laws that treat naturalized citizens differently from others. In fact they have ruled that even becoming a foreign citizen, in the absence of a formal renunciation, cannot automatically remove citizenship. It would be hard to reconcile recent jurisprudence on the subject with this idea. And I cannot believe that SCOTUS would merely reaffirm an old and limited decision on such a controversial topic.

I know you’re referencing a case, but out of context, I find this sentence enormously amusing.
Elk. Elk elk elk elk elk.

Elk.

Sorry about that, it appealed to my weird sense of humor. I will see what Findlaw or something similar says about it later (I am just checking in for a bit right now).

OK, folks, let’s slow down and look at the practicalities. I’m not an expert on immigration, but I am an immigrant. Please feel free to correct any mistakes I make. I’m posting from experience, not knowledge

First, a significant number of children born in the United States to non-US citizens are the children of legal immigrants, including my own little brother, to account for my own interest in this. Under most circumstances, legal immigrants are not eligible for citizenship until they’ve lived in this country for 7 years, which is an ample time span for children to be born.

Second, as I understand it, there are two documents which can prove US citizenship on their own: a birth certificate and a Naturalization certificate. If we decide that being born in the US is not adequate for citizenship in and of itself, then this complicates the matter of birth certificates. Do they vary from city to city or state to state in the US? I gather they do. At any rate, we’d need to modify them to indicate whether the baby is considered a citizen of the US at the time of his or her birth.

Third, if being born in the US alone is not sufficient for citizenship, would one or both parents have to be citizens and how would this be determined? If it’s one, what’s to stop a woman from lying about the baby’s parentage? We did, after all, have a thread about just this in MPSIMS recently. In some states, including mine, a woman’s husband is presumed to be the father of her baby. If a woman who’s a legal resident married to a US citizen has a child, here the child would be presumed to be her husband’s child therefore granted US citizenship, assuming only one parent must be a citizen for citizenship to be conferred on the child. However, what becomes of the child’s citizenship if, sometime later, the child’s biological father is determined to be someone else who isn’t a US citizen? For that matter, if the law had required that at least one parent be a US citizen, what’s to stop someone like my mother from claiming the father of her child isn’t her (legal immigrant) husband, but the guy next door who was born and raised in the US?

As I said, I do have a bit of a personal stake in this issue, but it looks to me like it would be opening a rather large can of worms and I seem to recall some sage advice about never opening a can of worms unless one plans on going fishing! :wink:

By the way, if you think the scenarios I mentioned in my third point are unlikely, I can give you a cite to a recent case in which custondy had to be determined. The parties involved were a surrogate mother, a sperm donor, an egg donor, and the couple who were trying to have the baby in the first place! :eek:

No. As has already been established, the wiki article is wrong.

I agree with your statement that the key question is the meaning of the above 14th Amendment clause. That is indeed what must be interpreted to resolve this issue. The point is, SCOTUS already answered the question. In 1898. Read the case. (I’ve linked to the opinion in a prior reply.)

A thousand citations to advocacy sites cannot change this.

So I am a citizen if my parents were citizens.
So then I have to prove my parents were citizens.
So then I have to prove my parents’ parents were citizens.
So then I have to prove my parent’s parents’ parents were citizens.
So then I have to prove my parent’s parents’ parents’ parents were citizens.
So then I have to prove my parent’s parents’ parents’ parents’ parents were citizens… :rolleyes:

No.* Assuming that you were born in the US, you don’t need to do this, unless your parents were diplomats (or members of an invading army).

That’s been said several times, with cites to the governing SCOTUS decision.
*I’m once again disregarding the American Indian issue, as not relevant to the OP.

Well, I tried finding some cites that speak only to the citizenship question, and am not having a whole lot of luck. many of the cites want to talk about the Civil War, Reconstruction, and states rights vs federal authority. In short, they seem to be interested in the “power struggles” and not much else. I did find one cite, it was the “14th amendment dummies guide”. Sound perfect? NOT!

http://federalistblog.us/mt/articles/14th_dummy_guide.htm

It sounded promising, or at least understandable. No such luck. The first half seemed to support what I said. But, the second half reversed itself. So, it looks like to settle this one needs to be both an attorney AND a serious Civil War buff.

But, if as this cite said in the second half, if there are no such citizenship protections for the children of “aliens”, then why not say so in the Amendment itself? That bothers me.

Here are some quotes from this cite:

That would seem (I say SEEM) to support the contention that defining someone as being “spawn of the alien” is indeed creating or defining a different, lower class of person.

The it gets right down to the citizenship clause:

OK, gotta be born here, and gotta have allegiance to the US. So far, it sounds simple (?) But then it gets tricky…

That seems to contradict what was said above, doesn’t it?
At least it gets a little more clear when talking about the equal protection of the law

So at least in this part, the cite didn’t contradict itself.
So much for the “simplified dummies guide” :rolleyes:

In checking the edit history, it appears that the novel legal interpretation in the article referred to was added to the article by an anonymous contributor, and has since been removed, as commented upon on the talk page.

From the Wikipedia talk page:

Since both English and US law are largely based on Common Law (according to Thomas Jefferson), that tends to support the notion of citizenship by birth.

Sorry, I meant to reply to this, then got caught up with other stuff and forgot about it.

Anyway, what is your point? Are you arguing what the the interpretation of the law IS? I’m sure we’ll be in complete agreement to that from both a legal and practical standpoint.

My point is that that was not the intent of the law. And it should not be interpreted the way it currently is.

So, if there was validity to this concept at all, my 70-uear-old ‘anchor baby’ USMC veteran Mother could be sent to (some darn place)? Nope. Ain’t going to happen.

Uhhhh…what? Validity to what concept, the misinterpreatation of the 14th Amendment? And how does this apply to your 70-year-old mother, or the fact that she is a USMC veteran(?) ? Are you thinking that the correct interpreation, if applied, would be retroactive?

The concept that persons born to foreigners in the US (as dear old Mom was) might not be Americans. I fail to see how it could not be retroactive. If a court were to rule a child born next year would not be a citizen, it follows that one born last year could no be a citizen.

So my Mom would not be a citizen. (And if she were not, I suppose I would not.)

Laws are often passed with effective dates attached. Also, in any law they can grant exceptions and “grandfather” in pretty much anything they want. So, rest easy, even if the law is changed, it’s not going to have an effect your mother or you.