# Does the first amendment really let corporations buy elections?

**URL:** <https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-the-first-amendment-really-let-corporations-buy-elections/507690>\
**Category:** Great Debates\
**Created:** [August 25, 2009, 8:39pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-the-first-amendment-really-let-corporations-buy-elections/507690 "2009-08-25T20:39:58Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Showing post:** 8

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**Author:** ![adhay](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/a/ecd19e/32.png) [@adhay](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/adhay)\
**Post date:** [August 26, 2009, 4:30am UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-the-first-amendment-really-let-corporations-buy-elections/507690/8 "2009-08-26T04:30:15Z")

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> [@Let's have a Dopey Constitutional Convention](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/lets-have-a-dopey-constitutional-convention/506637/16):
>
> The 14th amendment has since [1886](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Santa_Clara_County_v._Southern_Pacific_Railroad) has been interpreted to the effect that corporations are “people” and enjoy the rights of individuals. To my mind, this is THE most egregious piece of judicial legislation EVER. A brief history of this nightmare can be found [here](http://www.prorev.com/corpsandus.htm).

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