Does the lawyer usually know if their client is guilty?

I think it makes sense for a lawyer to remain open-minded even if their client confesses to them. There’s always the possibility that they are under duress, or are trying to protect someone, or are just confused.
Of course a confession shouldn’t be ignored, and puts a defence lawyer in an awkward position.

An innocent person confessing to their lawyer though is probably not very common.
However, many of the examples people have given in this thread – where the defendant just says something that implies guilt to their lawyer, or changes their story several times – I would think would be much more common, as innocent people can get scared and misremember just like anyone else.

No, I’m asking a factual question, trying to understand your anecdote. Was it a trial before judge alone, or judge or jury?

Is your contention that whether or not the defendant factually did whatever the prosecution alleges they did is retroactively determined at the point in time the jury/judge make their final decision on the case ? :slight_smile:
Unless it’s Schrödinger being tried, I mean. Then all bets are off.

Whether the individual factually did what the prosecutor alleges is not the end of the inquiry. A finding of guilt is a legal finding, based on the application of the law to the facts. There can be a situation where the accused concedes he did what the prosecutor alleges, but that it does not support a finding of guilt, as a matter of the law applied to those facts.

I admit to being a bit confused here. Are we talking of a situation along the lines of “yes I did shoot him but it wasn’t murder, I was defending myself”, or something entirely different ?

Possibly. But there is more to it than affirmative defenses. A jury could make a factual finding that Steve shot John and that no affirmative defense applies, and still find him not guilty.

“Yes, I admit that I, Steve, held the gun, aimed it at John, and pulled the trigger, and John was shot and killed. But my action wasn’t a crime. We were shooting a movie, and the scene called for me to aim the gun at him and fire. The prop master incorrectly loaded the gun. It had blanks, but a bullet from a previous load stuck in the barrel, and when the blank fired, the stuck bullet was discharged. It was a complete accident.”

OK, I think I got it now.

In this case, wouldn’t either the prosecutor have failed to allege an element of the crime of murder (i.e. intention of harm or however the particular statute is worded) or the defendant is disputing that particular allegation of fact?

So the defendant is not conceding all the facts alleged by the prosecutor, in this example?

Not necessarily – although I admit that this hypothetical isn’t how things would likely play out in real life.

But ordinarily, the prosecutor alleges intent, and proves intent in a case like this, by relying on the permissible inference that people intend the ordinary consequences of their actions. So if the prosecutor shows that Steve pointed a gun at John and pulled the trigger, that’s enough for the jury conclude that Steve intended to shoot John; people can be presumed to intend the ordinary results of their actions. Intent is almost always shown that way; seldom does a murderer announce loudly, “I intend to kill you with the following action.”

So the prosecutor doesn’t mention the movie – legally, he doesn’t need to. (Practically, of course, he knows the accused is going to say that movie prop mixup is what’s to blame, so practically speaking, his case-in-chief will address disproving that story).

The latter. See Northern Piper’s post that started this small tangent.

ETA: that was a response to Quercus.

I was watching American Crime Story today and there is lawyer flat out asks OJ if he did it. Is it known if that actually happened?

What were the circumstances under which it was supposed to have happened? I can’t imagine the defense team would ask him that - they don’t want to know. And I don’t see why the prosecution would ask. My extensive legal training (read: I watched Law and Order, Perry Mason, and To Kill A Mockingbird) tells me that you never ask a hostile witness a question unless you know, and can compel, the answer.

What was the point of the question? The prosecution asks OJ “did you do it”, he says “No”. How can they force him to say “Yes”? I would think they would be more likely to ask questions to show contradictions in his testimony, and to highlight the evidence against him.

Regards,
Shodan

No defense lawyer knows their client is guilty before a trial, because their client is not guilty until convicted of the charges. They may or may not the their client acted as the prosecution claims they acted, but their client is still not guilty as the legal system defines it.

A lawyer is not permitted to knowingly mislead the court, so it behooves a defense lawyer to not ask their client if the client did the deed, for that would limit what the lawyer could present at court.

IANAL, but I assume what this means is the lawyer cannot say things that contradict what he knows to be the truth.

Does this mean he can say “how definite is it that the DNA is my client’s?” but cannot say something misleading like “is it possible that the DNA is from one of the crime scene investigators?” He can say “how could you possibly identify my client as the perp, it was pitch dark and you were 200 feet away?” but I assume he cannot say “could it have been Joe instead”? I assume the quality of his leading questions are limited if he explicitly suggests an untruth? Obviously during the summary he cannot say “it is also entirely possible some unknown assailant did it…” if he knows this not to be the case. Obviously he cannot parrot an alibi he knows to be untrue, and he cannot (if his client is stupid enough to demand to take the stand) as questions that elicit a perjury.

As a good example of the defence, look up the travails of Paul Bernardo’s lawyer. His first lawyer retrieved the tapes of the torture and murder and dismemberment of two teenage girls. They were hidden in the house and after the police tore the house apart, he went in and got them in five minutes. He held on to the tapes for several months without watching them per his client’s instructions (although he had a good idea what was on them.) He later had someone else watch them and not tell him what was on them, and then he felt obliged (after consulting a lawyer himself) to turn them over to the prosecution.

Bernardo was trying to claim that his wife, Karla Homolka, was the murderer not him. The tapes would have been his Perry Mason moment after she testified how she was coerced to help with the murders. She had meanwhile played the “battered wife” card and made a deal - the tapes showed she was far more complicit than she claimed and had even “failed to mention” another drugged rape in violation of her agreement. For revenge on proof of their incompetence, the prosecutors charged the lawyer but eventually lost that case.

She’s been out of jail for almost a decade, happily(?) married with two kids now, he’ll be in jail for life.

This is a very surprising thread for me. I thought that all lawyers operated this way, but evidently not.

This is exactly opposite to everything I have ever seen or heard on the subject before now.

It was my understanding that a defense lawyer always wants to know everything, including whether his client is guilty. The theory is that otherwise, he runs the risk of being blindsided by something that the prosecution finds, and thus has little or no chance to prepare an adequate defense. I have read from several different sources, “Never ask a question in court that you don’t know the answer to.” It was my understanding that a lawyer whose client lies to him, or conceals part of the truth, has an excellent chance of being unpleasantly surprised at some point before the trial is over.

But you people are saying that a defense attorney is actually better off not knowing the whole story. I suppose I will have to bow to your expertise, but I still find that very difficult to believe.

Yeah, the problem with the idea that the lawyer should “limit what his client tells him” is that doing so means the lawyer isn’t getting the full story and facts. I’d much rather my client tell me everything, including whether or not they did it, so I can then advise and construct the case accordingly. Unsurprisingly, that advice will often be “take the plea” but every case is different in terms of whether there’s a good offer, how much evidence the prosecution has, etc.

If the client makes it clear he intends to testify and commit perjury (or takes the stand and starts doing so) then there’s really three options for the attorney:

  1. ask to withdraw,
  2. allow the client to testify in a narrative, and ignore client’s testimony in your arguments;
  3. continue on and present your client’s testimony as the truth.

Each one has it’s problem. For #1, the request to withdraw may not be granted (especially in cases where the attorney has been appointed), and in any event it’s just kicking the can down the road for the next attorney to deal with. #2 satisfies both the client (who gets to testify) and the lawyer (who isn’t using perjured evidence) but can ‘give away’ the case in that people may realize what’s going on when the lawyer doesn’t ask the questions or refer to the testimony in closing. #3 is probably the best in terms of providing for a zealous defense, but is of arguable legality and may result in getting in trouble with the Bar.

Basically, the way the rules are now, the lawyer can be put in somewhat of a tough position. There probably needs to be some reworking to decide if the lawyer has a higher duty to their client or the truth for matters like these.

ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct

http://www.americanbar.org/groups/professional_responsibility/publications/model_rules_of_professional_conduct/rule_3_3_candor_toward_the_tribunal.html

http://www.americanbar.org/groups/professional_responsibility/publications/model_rules_of_professional_conduct/rule_3_3_candor_toward_the_tribunal/comment_on_rule_3_3.html

Lawyers from several countries, including the USA weigh in: How often do lawyers lie to judges? - Factual Questions - Straight Dope Message Board

FWIW, I should’ve made it clear that I’m in California, which is the only state that hasn’t adopted the ABA Model Rules (I know some states have only partially, not sure where the rules we’re talking about fall on a state-by-state basis). While California still contains a rule that lawyers need to be truthful to the court (Rule 5-200), unlike the ABA Model Rules, that rule does NOT trump the duty of confidentiality. So different answers for different jurisdictions, what fun.

From a California MCLE on the subject:

For civil suits, they recommend first speaking with your client and letting him know that he needs to tell the truth, and try to rectify it with new testimony. If not, then try to withdraw, and if the court doesn’t let you, proceed without using the perjured testimony. At no point can you disclose that the testimony was perjured.

As for a criminal case, they recommend what I called option #2, which is let your client testify in a narrative and ignore client’s testimony in closing arguments. I still think this is a dead giveaway, both to an educated jury and the judge, but I suppose you can say client deserves it by lying.