Does Trump's rhetoric exceed the bounds of free spech

It’s a source of continual amazement to me how often people are comfortable with – perhaps even blind to – their application of different standards for conduct or policies they like and conduct or standards they don’t like.

The US election has been rigged since 2000, has it?

I took LHoD’s comment as shorthand for the much longer and more tedious rebuttal of this kind of hypocrisy accusation, which has been hashed out dozens of times on this board. One key element of that criticism is that the attack often relies on a logical fallacy: identifying a member of Group A who did one thing, and then another member of Group A who did something that would be hypocritical if the other person had done the same thing.

Given that most people in this thread have not levied the criticism that Trump’s comments about elections being rigged rises to the level of criminal activity, and have refuted it, I think to accurately make the claim of hypocrisy you’d need to find an example of a person claiming previous elections being rigged, while at the same time complaining that Trump’s comments were out of line.

RESOLVED: it’s protected speech. But are his statements libelous?

Defamatory statements made without a shred of evidence are his stock-in-trade… He has a reckless disregard for truth. Couldn’t this be considered actual malice?

Or could he claim insanity?:smack:

Huh, a lot was about very suspicious irregularities (Butterfly ballot, felons list preventing people from voting, etc.)

The ones protesting and intimidating people doing the recount and claiming that the vote was being rigged in favor of Al Gore was the right wing:

He also neglected to mention that Democrats started a GoFundMe page (whose target was reached in 40 minutes) to help pay for the damage.

Do you have a cite for that? Not that I doubt it happened, I’m just curious to see which posters in 2000 and 2004 were also candidates for major political parties, who routinely get thousands and thousands of people to show up at rallies just to hear them speak.

I think the current line for incitement is basically in the right place.

When Trump loses, if he publicly calls on his supporters to riot, then at that time he’s guilty of incitement.

But, in itself, saying the election’s rigged is no more a guarantee of riots than saying the world is run by the lizard illuminati.
I agree there’s some danger in him saying that but right now it’s protected speech.

I think that’s a big maybe. Bone gave en excellent rundown of current 1st Amendment precedents in post #7. It would probably depend on the specific wording of his “call … to riot”.

If it was something very specific like “I want everyone within the sound of my voice to gather tonight at 10:00 PM at your city hall and burn that motherf***** down”, it might be a criminal offense.

If it was something more vague like “You people shouldn’t stand for this. This election was rigged. You need to get out on the streets with pitchforks and torches and show them that you won’t stand for it.” Then it’s still probably protected speech.

But, like Richard Parker said, “ten judges would probably have three different opinions.”

The clearest example of inciting a riot that I can think of in recent days was Michael Brown’s step-father shouting “burn this bitch down!” (which seems to have worked). It was enough to get Mr. Head arrested and charge with inciting a riot, but I don’t know if he ultimately got convicted or not.

Oh my. Allegations about “rigging” in the 2000 and 2004 elections were made after the election and were supported by credible and specific evidence. Your Party’s dog is whining before the election, with his “evidence” being just that he’s down in the polls.

And, unlike your Party’s dog, Gore and Kerry did not encourage their supporters to get out on Election Day and harass voters in precincts leaning toward the other Party.

But do please keep wallowing in your “Both sides do it. Nanner nanner nanner” feel-good delusions. Heaven forbid that you should ever have a clue!

Sometimes, when something constantly amazes you, it’s a REAL GOOD IDEA to double-check and be sure you understand what the hell is going on. Sometimes the source of astonishment is based on misunderstanding, or even on your own biased view of events.

I have never been able to understand the difference. If I say “Come on, everyone, let’s go burn the post office down, RIGHT NOW” then I am encouraging imminent lawless action.

It seems if I say “Come on, everyone, meet me at 2:00 p.m. tomorrow afternoon to burn down the post office” then that is protected speech because what I am encouraging is not imminent.

Is there a case which answers this dilemma.

Yes and no.

There are lots of district court and a few appellate cases dealing with imminence. AFAIK, they come out in lots of different directions, but the weight of authority looks at whether the person is really incited in the sense that upon hearing the speech they go and commit the crime.

I do not believe any of the Supreme Court authority has been sufficiently fine-grained on the question of imminence. But I’ve been meaning to brush up on this, so I’ll report back if I find anything helpful.

Here’s a nice summary from the Arizona Supreme Court in 2005:

(emphasis added)

I’m not entirely sure that your second sentence is protected speech, insofar as it could be the basis for a criminal charge of solicitation.

Richard,

Thanks, that was a fascinating read.

I’m just picturing Trump getting all hyperlegal and saying something like “if I loose the election…it was because it was rigged…might be time to riot…but NOT next Tuesday”

Good point. Indeed, even absent the specific and imminent time (which might be enough for Brandenburg), the specific identification of both the intended victim and the intended crime might bring it within the solicitation exception–which is a whole different doctrine from incitement!