# Does usufruct exist in common law sytem?

**URL:** https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-usufruct-exist-in-common-law-sytem/489142
**Category:** Factual Questions
**Created:** [March 11, 2009, 10:48pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-usufruct-exist-in-common-law-sytem/489142 "2009-03-11T22:48:47Z")
**Posts on this page:** 2
**Page:** 2

<div class="post-metadata">

### Author: ![clairobscur](https://avatars.discourse-cdn.com/v4/letter/c/839c29/32.png) [@clairobscur](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/clairobscur)
#### Post date: [March 12, 2009, 7:20pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-usufruct-exist-in-common-law-sytem/489142/21 "2009-03-12T19:20:32Z")

</div>

> [@G. Odoreida](#):
>
> I think usufruct is called [liferent](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liferent_(Scots_law)) in Scots law.

Isn’t Scot Law a bastardized form of civil law?

---

<div class="post-metadata">

### Author: ![Northern\_Piper](https://sea3.discourse-cdn.com/straightdope/user_avatar/boards.straightdope.com/northern_piper/32/5304_2.png) [@Northern\_Piper](https://boards.straightdope.com/u/Northern_Piper)
#### Post date: [March 12, 2009, 8:04pm UTC](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-usufruct-exist-in-common-law-sytem/489142/22 "2009-03-12T20:04:07Z")

</div>

I’d be careful about using the term bastardized!

Scots law is based on the civil law, particularly the Corpus Juris of Justinian. It’s never been codified, and has been influenced by feudal law and the English common law, but it’s a civil law system. Similarly, Quebec and South Africa are civil law jurisdictions, with influences from the English common law.

[Previous page](https://boards.straightdope.com/t/does-usufruct-exist-in-common-law-sytem/489142.md?page=1)